Is sum of two closed set is closed

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If A, B are closed subsets of $[0,∞)$, then
$$A + B = ,x + y mid x ∈ A,, y ∈ B,$$
is closed in $ [0,infty)$.



If A ,B are closed sets in $mathbb R$ , then i know counterexamples but considering only non negative reals ,i can't able to get a counterexample which doesn't implies it must be true.



So i want to prove or disprove , I know it is not true in genral but under this particular situation i want to know it is TRUE /FALSE










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  • In case you didn't see my reply to your comment beneath my (now deleted) answer, you were quite right, my answer was quite wrong. Sorry for the noise.
    – Barry Cipra
    1 hour ago














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












If A, B are closed subsets of $[0,∞)$, then
$$A + B = ,x + y mid x ∈ A,, y ∈ B,$$
is closed in $ [0,infty)$.



If A ,B are closed sets in $mathbb R$ , then i know counterexamples but considering only non negative reals ,i can't able to get a counterexample which doesn't implies it must be true.



So i want to prove or disprove , I know it is not true in genral but under this particular situation i want to know it is TRUE /FALSE










share|cite|improve this question























  • In case you didn't see my reply to your comment beneath my (now deleted) answer, you were quite right, my answer was quite wrong. Sorry for the noise.
    – Barry Cipra
    1 hour ago












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











If A, B are closed subsets of $[0,∞)$, then
$$A + B = ,x + y mid x ∈ A,, y ∈ B,$$
is closed in $ [0,infty)$.



If A ,B are closed sets in $mathbb R$ , then i know counterexamples but considering only non negative reals ,i can't able to get a counterexample which doesn't implies it must be true.



So i want to prove or disprove , I know it is not true in genral but under this particular situation i want to know it is TRUE /FALSE










share|cite|improve this question















If A, B are closed subsets of $[0,∞)$, then
$$A + B = ,x + y mid x ∈ A,, y ∈ B,$$
is closed in $ [0,infty)$.



If A ,B are closed sets in $mathbb R$ , then i know counterexamples but considering only non negative reals ,i can't able to get a counterexample which doesn't implies it must be true.



So i want to prove or disprove , I know it is not true in genral but under this particular situation i want to know it is TRUE /FALSE







real-analysis general-topology






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edited 1 hour ago









Hagen von Eitzen

272k21264492




272k21264492










asked 1 hour ago









Cloud JR

604415




604415











  • In case you didn't see my reply to your comment beneath my (now deleted) answer, you were quite right, my answer was quite wrong. Sorry for the noise.
    – Barry Cipra
    1 hour ago
















  • In case you didn't see my reply to your comment beneath my (now deleted) answer, you were quite right, my answer was quite wrong. Sorry for the noise.
    – Barry Cipra
    1 hour ago















In case you didn't see my reply to your comment beneath my (now deleted) answer, you were quite right, my answer was quite wrong. Sorry for the noise.
– Barry Cipra
1 hour ago




In case you didn't see my reply to your comment beneath my (now deleted) answer, you were quite right, my answer was quite wrong. Sorry for the noise.
– Barry Cipra
1 hour ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










Take a sequence $(x_n)subseteq A+B$ convergent to $xin [0,infty)$. We want to show that $xin A+B$.



It follows that $x_n=a_n+b_n$ for some sequences $(a_n)subseteq A$ and $(b_n)subseteq B$. Since $A,B$ are subsets of $[0,infty)$ then $$0leq a_nleq x_n$$
$$0leq b_nleq x_n$$



In particular, since $x_n$ is bounded then so are $a_n$ and $b_n$ (this is exactly the place where the proof would fail for whole $mathbbR$ case). Therefore they have convergent subsequences, say $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k$ (we can choose indexes in such a way that they coincide). It follows that



$$x=lim_n=0^infty x_n=lim_k=0^infty x_n_k= lim_k=0^inftybig(a_n_k+b_n_kbig)=lim_k=0^inftya_n_k+lim_k=0^inftyb_n_kin A+B$$



the last "$in$" because $A,B$ are closed.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
    – Cloud JR
    1 hour ago











  • @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
    – freakish
    30 mins ago


















up vote
1
down vote













If $A$ and $B$ are compact, $A + B$ is compact because it is the image of the compact set $A times B$ under the continuous function $(a,b) mapsto a+b$.



If $A$ and $B$ are closed subsets of $[0,infty)$, then for all $N > 0$ we have
$$(A + B) cap [0, N] = ((A cap [0,N]) + (B cap [0,N])) cap [0,N]$$ which is closed, therefore $A + B$ is closed.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Consider the compactification $X = [0,+infty]$. We can extend the addition function to $X times X$ by defining $+infty + x = x + +infty = +infty$ for all $x in X$, and one can check this is still continuous as a map $p$ from $X times X to X$. Then, if $A,B subseteq [0,+infty)$ are closed, then their closures in $X$ are either $A$ resp $B$ or $A cup +infty$ or $B cup +infty$ respectively, depending on whether $A$ and $B$ were bounded or not.



    In either case $p[overlineA times overlineB]$ is compact hence closed in $X$ and so $A + B = p[overlineA times overlineB] cap [0,+infty)$ is also closed in $[0,+infty)$.






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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      Take a sequence $(x_n)subseteq A+B$ convergent to $xin [0,infty)$. We want to show that $xin A+B$.



      It follows that $x_n=a_n+b_n$ for some sequences $(a_n)subseteq A$ and $(b_n)subseteq B$. Since $A,B$ are subsets of $[0,infty)$ then $$0leq a_nleq x_n$$
      $$0leq b_nleq x_n$$



      In particular, since $x_n$ is bounded then so are $a_n$ and $b_n$ (this is exactly the place where the proof would fail for whole $mathbbR$ case). Therefore they have convergent subsequences, say $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k$ (we can choose indexes in such a way that they coincide). It follows that



      $$x=lim_n=0^infty x_n=lim_k=0^infty x_n_k= lim_k=0^inftybig(a_n_k+b_n_kbig)=lim_k=0^inftya_n_k+lim_k=0^inftyb_n_kin A+B$$



      the last "$in$" because $A,B$ are closed.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
        – Cloud JR
        1 hour ago











      • @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
        – freakish
        30 mins ago















      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      Take a sequence $(x_n)subseteq A+B$ convergent to $xin [0,infty)$. We want to show that $xin A+B$.



      It follows that $x_n=a_n+b_n$ for some sequences $(a_n)subseteq A$ and $(b_n)subseteq B$. Since $A,B$ are subsets of $[0,infty)$ then $$0leq a_nleq x_n$$
      $$0leq b_nleq x_n$$



      In particular, since $x_n$ is bounded then so are $a_n$ and $b_n$ (this is exactly the place where the proof would fail for whole $mathbbR$ case). Therefore they have convergent subsequences, say $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k$ (we can choose indexes in such a way that they coincide). It follows that



      $$x=lim_n=0^infty x_n=lim_k=0^infty x_n_k= lim_k=0^inftybig(a_n_k+b_n_kbig)=lim_k=0^inftya_n_k+lim_k=0^inftyb_n_kin A+B$$



      the last "$in$" because $A,B$ are closed.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
        – Cloud JR
        1 hour ago











      • @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
        – freakish
        30 mins ago













      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted






      Take a sequence $(x_n)subseteq A+B$ convergent to $xin [0,infty)$. We want to show that $xin A+B$.



      It follows that $x_n=a_n+b_n$ for some sequences $(a_n)subseteq A$ and $(b_n)subseteq B$. Since $A,B$ are subsets of $[0,infty)$ then $$0leq a_nleq x_n$$
      $$0leq b_nleq x_n$$



      In particular, since $x_n$ is bounded then so are $a_n$ and $b_n$ (this is exactly the place where the proof would fail for whole $mathbbR$ case). Therefore they have convergent subsequences, say $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k$ (we can choose indexes in such a way that they coincide). It follows that



      $$x=lim_n=0^infty x_n=lim_k=0^infty x_n_k= lim_k=0^inftybig(a_n_k+b_n_kbig)=lim_k=0^inftya_n_k+lim_k=0^inftyb_n_kin A+B$$



      the last "$in$" because $A,B$ are closed.






      share|cite|improve this answer














      Take a sequence $(x_n)subseteq A+B$ convergent to $xin [0,infty)$. We want to show that $xin A+B$.



      It follows that $x_n=a_n+b_n$ for some sequences $(a_n)subseteq A$ and $(b_n)subseteq B$. Since $A,B$ are subsets of $[0,infty)$ then $$0leq a_nleq x_n$$
      $$0leq b_nleq x_n$$



      In particular, since $x_n$ is bounded then so are $a_n$ and $b_n$ (this is exactly the place where the proof would fail for whole $mathbbR$ case). Therefore they have convergent subsequences, say $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k$ (we can choose indexes in such a way that they coincide). It follows that



      $$x=lim_n=0^infty x_n=lim_k=0^infty x_n_k= lim_k=0^inftybig(a_n_k+b_n_kbig)=lim_k=0^inftya_n_k+lim_k=0^inftyb_n_kin A+B$$



      the last "$in$" because $A,B$ are closed.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited 27 mins ago

























      answered 1 hour ago









      freakish

      9,6561524




      9,6561524











      • We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
        – Cloud JR
        1 hour ago











      • @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
        – freakish
        30 mins ago

















      • We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
        – Cloud JR
        1 hour ago











      • @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
        – freakish
        30 mins ago
















      We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
      – Cloud JR
      1 hour ago





      We don't know anything about uniqueness of subsequential limit of $a_n_k$ and $b_n_k $. Is it a problem? To uniqueness of x?
      – Cloud JR
      1 hour ago













      @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
      – freakish
      30 mins ago





      @CloudJR You mean that these limits depend on the choice of subsequences? Yes, but it doesn't matter. The only important thing is that they belong to $A,B$ respectively and their sum is $x$. Note that the choice of whole $(a_n), (b_n)$ sequences is not unique as well. In particular if $A=B=[0,infty)$ then there's a lot of different choices.
      – freakish
      30 mins ago











      up vote
      1
      down vote













      If $A$ and $B$ are compact, $A + B$ is compact because it is the image of the compact set $A times B$ under the continuous function $(a,b) mapsto a+b$.



      If $A$ and $B$ are closed subsets of $[0,infty)$, then for all $N > 0$ we have
      $$(A + B) cap [0, N] = ((A cap [0,N]) + (B cap [0,N])) cap [0,N]$$ which is closed, therefore $A + B$ is closed.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        If $A$ and $B$ are compact, $A + B$ is compact because it is the image of the compact set $A times B$ under the continuous function $(a,b) mapsto a+b$.



        If $A$ and $B$ are closed subsets of $[0,infty)$, then for all $N > 0$ we have
        $$(A + B) cap [0, N] = ((A cap [0,N]) + (B cap [0,N])) cap [0,N]$$ which is closed, therefore $A + B$ is closed.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          If $A$ and $B$ are compact, $A + B$ is compact because it is the image of the compact set $A times B$ under the continuous function $(a,b) mapsto a+b$.



          If $A$ and $B$ are closed subsets of $[0,infty)$, then for all $N > 0$ we have
          $$(A + B) cap [0, N] = ((A cap [0,N]) + (B cap [0,N])) cap [0,N]$$ which is closed, therefore $A + B$ is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          If $A$ and $B$ are compact, $A + B$ is compact because it is the image of the compact set $A times B$ under the continuous function $(a,b) mapsto a+b$.



          If $A$ and $B$ are closed subsets of $[0,infty)$, then for all $N > 0$ we have
          $$(A + B) cap [0, N] = ((A cap [0,N]) + (B cap [0,N])) cap [0,N]$$ which is closed, therefore $A + B$ is closed.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 1 hour ago









          Robert Israel

          312k23204451




          312k23204451




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Consider the compactification $X = [0,+infty]$. We can extend the addition function to $X times X$ by defining $+infty + x = x + +infty = +infty$ for all $x in X$, and one can check this is still continuous as a map $p$ from $X times X to X$. Then, if $A,B subseteq [0,+infty)$ are closed, then their closures in $X$ are either $A$ resp $B$ or $A cup +infty$ or $B cup +infty$ respectively, depending on whether $A$ and $B$ were bounded or not.



              In either case $p[overlineA times overlineB]$ is compact hence closed in $X$ and so $A + B = p[overlineA times overlineB] cap [0,+infty)$ is also closed in $[0,+infty)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Consider the compactification $X = [0,+infty]$. We can extend the addition function to $X times X$ by defining $+infty + x = x + +infty = +infty$ for all $x in X$, and one can check this is still continuous as a map $p$ from $X times X to X$. Then, if $A,B subseteq [0,+infty)$ are closed, then their closures in $X$ are either $A$ resp $B$ or $A cup +infty$ or $B cup +infty$ respectively, depending on whether $A$ and $B$ were bounded or not.



                In either case $p[overlineA times overlineB]$ is compact hence closed in $X$ and so $A + B = p[overlineA times overlineB] cap [0,+infty)$ is also closed in $[0,+infty)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Consider the compactification $X = [0,+infty]$. We can extend the addition function to $X times X$ by defining $+infty + x = x + +infty = +infty$ for all $x in X$, and one can check this is still continuous as a map $p$ from $X times X to X$. Then, if $A,B subseteq [0,+infty)$ are closed, then their closures in $X$ are either $A$ resp $B$ or $A cup +infty$ or $B cup +infty$ respectively, depending on whether $A$ and $B$ were bounded or not.



                  In either case $p[overlineA times overlineB]$ is compact hence closed in $X$ and so $A + B = p[overlineA times overlineB] cap [0,+infty)$ is also closed in $[0,+infty)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Consider the compactification $X = [0,+infty]$. We can extend the addition function to $X times X$ by defining $+infty + x = x + +infty = +infty$ for all $x in X$, and one can check this is still continuous as a map $p$ from $X times X to X$. Then, if $A,B subseteq [0,+infty)$ are closed, then their closures in $X$ are either $A$ resp $B$ or $A cup +infty$ or $B cup +infty$ respectively, depending on whether $A$ and $B$ were bounded or not.



                  In either case $p[overlineA times overlineB]$ is compact hence closed in $X$ and so $A + B = p[overlineA times overlineB] cap [0,+infty)$ is also closed in $[0,+infty)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 16 mins ago









                  Henno Brandsma

                  99.4k344107




                  99.4k344107



























                       

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