「ã§ã™ã€Â, what is it really? Is my analysis correct?
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At an elementary level, often, Japanese learners are taught that ã§ã™ is equivalent to the verb "to be" in English. Typical example:
ç§Âã¯å¦生ã§ã™, I am a student.
That's fine, after all, it works. And to be honest, most people probably wouldn't really need a different explanation for the rest of their life.
With this question I'd like to go a little deeper. Can we really call ã§ã™(or ã ) an auxiliary verb?
To start with, if you look ã up on goo, it is grouped together with ã§ã™, ã§ã‚る, and ã®ã .
Right off the bat, you get this explanation:
æ–Â定を表ã‚Âã™。 expresses a conclusion/decision
So here is not really mentioning the word "verb" or "auxiliary verb" at all. Shortly after you can see:
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
So, we can start by saying that actually ã§ã™ is an alteration/contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™.
Continuing to read the definition we get:
「ã§ã‚るã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ã€Âã«補助動詞「ã‚るã€ÂãŒ接続ã—ãŸもã®ã§ã€ÂåŒ様ã®もã®ã«「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãÂ΋‚る。
Hence, 「ã§ã‚る〠is formed by attaching to「ã§ã€Âthe subsidiary/auxiliary verb「ã‚るã€Â. Because actually:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Therefore, if I'm not wrong, we can do the following passages:
「ã§ã€Â+「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Âï¼Â「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â@「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â ï¼Â 「ã§ã™ã€Â
Does the above make sense? In particular I'm a bit doubtful about the second equality.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form). It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â, which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage), that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Is this a correct explanation? How can it be improved? Or, if it's wrong, where and why?
grammar verbs copula
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
At an elementary level, often, Japanese learners are taught that ã§ã™ is equivalent to the verb "to be" in English. Typical example:
ç§Âã¯å¦生ã§ã™, I am a student.
That's fine, after all, it works. And to be honest, most people probably wouldn't really need a different explanation for the rest of their life.
With this question I'd like to go a little deeper. Can we really call ã§ã™(or ã ) an auxiliary verb?
To start with, if you look ã up on goo, it is grouped together with ã§ã™, ã§ã‚る, and ã®ã .
Right off the bat, you get this explanation:
æ–Â定を表ã‚Âã™。 expresses a conclusion/decision
So here is not really mentioning the word "verb" or "auxiliary verb" at all. Shortly after you can see:
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
So, we can start by saying that actually ã§ã™ is an alteration/contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™.
Continuing to read the definition we get:
「ã§ã‚るã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ã€Âã«補助動詞「ã‚るã€ÂãŒ接続ã—ãŸもã®ã§ã€ÂåŒ様ã®もã®ã«「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãÂ΋‚る。
Hence, 「ã§ã‚る〠is formed by attaching to「ã§ã€Âthe subsidiary/auxiliary verb「ã‚るã€Â. Because actually:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Therefore, if I'm not wrong, we can do the following passages:
「ã§ã€Â+「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Âï¼Â「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â@「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â ï¼Â 「ã§ã™ã€Â
Does the above make sense? In particular I'm a bit doubtful about the second equality.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form). It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â, which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage), that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Is this a correct explanation? How can it be improved? Or, if it's wrong, where and why?
grammar verbs copula
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
At an elementary level, often, Japanese learners are taught that ã§ã™ is equivalent to the verb "to be" in English. Typical example:
ç§Âã¯å¦生ã§ã™, I am a student.
That's fine, after all, it works. And to be honest, most people probably wouldn't really need a different explanation for the rest of their life.
With this question I'd like to go a little deeper. Can we really call ã§ã™(or ã ) an auxiliary verb?
To start with, if you look ã up on goo, it is grouped together with ã§ã™, ã§ã‚る, and ã®ã .
Right off the bat, you get this explanation:
æ–Â定を表ã‚Âã™。 expresses a conclusion/decision
So here is not really mentioning the word "verb" or "auxiliary verb" at all. Shortly after you can see:
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
So, we can start by saying that actually ã§ã™ is an alteration/contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™.
Continuing to read the definition we get:
「ã§ã‚るã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ã€Âã«補助動詞「ã‚るã€ÂãŒ接続ã—ãŸもã®ã§ã€ÂåŒ様ã®もã®ã«「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãÂ΋‚る。
Hence, 「ã§ã‚る〠is formed by attaching to「ã§ã€Âthe subsidiary/auxiliary verb「ã‚るã€Â. Because actually:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Therefore, if I'm not wrong, we can do the following passages:
「ã§ã€Â+「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Âï¼Â「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â@「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â ï¼Â 「ã§ã™ã€Â
Does the above make sense? In particular I'm a bit doubtful about the second equality.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form). It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â, which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage), that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Is this a correct explanation? How can it be improved? Or, if it's wrong, where and why?
grammar verbs copula
At an elementary level, often, Japanese learners are taught that ã§ã™ is equivalent to the verb "to be" in English. Typical example:
ç§Âã¯å¦生ã§ã™, I am a student.
That's fine, after all, it works. And to be honest, most people probably wouldn't really need a different explanation for the rest of their life.
With this question I'd like to go a little deeper. Can we really call ã§ã™(or ã ) an auxiliary verb?
To start with, if you look ã up on goo, it is grouped together with ã§ã™, ã§ã‚る, and ã®ã .
Right off the bat, you get this explanation:
æ–Â定を表ã‚Âã™。 expresses a conclusion/decision
So here is not really mentioning the word "verb" or "auxiliary verb" at all. Shortly after you can see:
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
So, we can start by saying that actually ã§ã™ is an alteration/contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™.
Continuing to read the definition we get:
「ã§ã‚るã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ã€Âã«補助動詞「ã‚るã€ÂãŒ接続ã—ãŸもã®ã§ã€ÂåŒ様ã®もã®ã«「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãÂ΋‚る。
Hence, 「ã§ã‚る〠is formed by attaching to「ã§ã€Âthe subsidiary/auxiliary verb「ã‚るã€Â. Because actually:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Therefore, if I'm not wrong, we can do the following passages:
「ã§ã€Â+「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Âï¼Â「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â@「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â ï¼Â 「ã§ã™ã€Â
Does the above make sense? In particular I'm a bit doubtful about the second equality.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form). It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â, which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage), that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Is this a correct explanation? How can it be improved? Or, if it's wrong, where and why?
grammar verbs copula
grammar verbs copula
asked 2 hours ago


Tommy
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Your collection of questions conflate a few things: 1) what is ã ・ã§ã™ in modern Japanese, and 2) how did ã ・ã§ã™ derive historically.
Because of #2, #1 is a bit ... messy. :) So let's start with the history.
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
This isn't an explanation of what ã§ã™ is now, so much as an explanation of the historical derivation. Shogakukan's 国語大辞典 provides this description:
「ã§ãÂӋ–りã¾ã™ã€Â→「ã§ãÂӋ–んã™ã€Â→「ã§ã‚んã™ã€Â→「ã§ãˆã™ã€Â→「ã§ã™ã€Âã®経路ã§生ã˜ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†
Meanwhile, the modern plain form ã derives as:
「ã«ã¦ã‚りã€Âã‹ら出ãŸ「ã§ã‚るã€ÂãÂŒã€Â〔dea〕→〔da〕ã¨変化ã—ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†。→ã§ã‚・ã˜ゃ・ã§ã‚る
Modern ã§ (which actually appears from around the 1300s-1500s) is understood to have evolved from earlier ã«ã¦ (which is still used in formal writing). Classical copular ("is") verb ã‚り equates to modern verb ã‚る.
Looking now at the particular parts of your post:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Well, yes, in the modern language. But historically, ã derives from ã§ + ã‚る -- so this is not a regular kind of conjugation paradigm.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form).
Yes. Though I might not use the term "variation" so much as "polite form".
It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â,
It derives from a contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™, but I don't believe it's considered to be such a contraction in modern regular usage.
which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage)
It's not quite the same as ã§ã‚りã¾ã™. Note that ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ is the humble version of ã‚りã¾ã™. That difference in usage is important. :)
that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
Yes -- but note also that ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ is not a verb unto itself, but simply the particle ã§ plus the verb ã‚りã¾ã™.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Historically, yes. And if you dig around in classical Japanese and older stages of the language, you'll find just that -- ã‚り serves as the primary copular verb.
In modern Japanese, however, ã ・ã§ã™ is the primary copular verb: it closes a predicate, and (optionally) supplies social register information ("politeness"). One no longer says things like 綺麗ã«ã‚り, one says instead 綺麗ã . Similarly, instead of 本ã«ã¦ã‚り, one says 本ã .
Related thread touching upon social register:
- Why can't ã be used after an I-adjective?
I hope the above covers the bases for you. If not, please comment and I can edit the post accordingly.
1
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
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1 Answer
1
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
Your collection of questions conflate a few things: 1) what is ã ・ã§ã™ in modern Japanese, and 2) how did ã ・ã§ã™ derive historically.
Because of #2, #1 is a bit ... messy. :) So let's start with the history.
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
This isn't an explanation of what ã§ã™ is now, so much as an explanation of the historical derivation. Shogakukan's 国語大辞典 provides this description:
「ã§ãÂӋ–りã¾ã™ã€Â→「ã§ãÂӋ–んã™ã€Â→「ã§ã‚んã™ã€Â→「ã§ãˆã™ã€Â→「ã§ã™ã€Âã®経路ã§生ã˜ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†
Meanwhile, the modern plain form ã derives as:
「ã«ã¦ã‚りã€Âã‹ら出ãŸ「ã§ã‚るã€ÂãÂŒã€Â〔dea〕→〔da〕ã¨変化ã—ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†。→ã§ã‚・ã˜ゃ・ã§ã‚る
Modern ã§ (which actually appears from around the 1300s-1500s) is understood to have evolved from earlier ã«ã¦ (which is still used in formal writing). Classical copular ("is") verb ã‚り equates to modern verb ã‚る.
Looking now at the particular parts of your post:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Well, yes, in the modern language. But historically, ã derives from ã§ + ã‚る -- so this is not a regular kind of conjugation paradigm.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form).
Yes. Though I might not use the term "variation" so much as "polite form".
It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â,
It derives from a contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™, but I don't believe it's considered to be such a contraction in modern regular usage.
which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage)
It's not quite the same as ã§ã‚りã¾ã™. Note that ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ is the humble version of ã‚りã¾ã™. That difference in usage is important. :)
that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
Yes -- but note also that ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ is not a verb unto itself, but simply the particle ã§ plus the verb ã‚りã¾ã™.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Historically, yes. And if you dig around in classical Japanese and older stages of the language, you'll find just that -- ã‚り serves as the primary copular verb.
In modern Japanese, however, ã ・ã§ã™ is the primary copular verb: it closes a predicate, and (optionally) supplies social register information ("politeness"). One no longer says things like 綺麗ã«ã‚り, one says instead 綺麗ã . Similarly, instead of 本ã«ã¦ã‚り, one says 本ã .
Related thread touching upon social register:
- Why can't ã be used after an I-adjective?
I hope the above covers the bases for you. If not, please comment and I can edit the post accordingly.
1
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
Your collection of questions conflate a few things: 1) what is ã ・ã§ã™ in modern Japanese, and 2) how did ã ・ã§ã™ derive historically.
Because of #2, #1 is a bit ... messy. :) So let's start with the history.
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
This isn't an explanation of what ã§ã™ is now, so much as an explanation of the historical derivation. Shogakukan's 国語大辞典 provides this description:
「ã§ãÂӋ–りã¾ã™ã€Â→「ã§ãÂӋ–んã™ã€Â→「ã§ã‚んã™ã€Â→「ã§ãˆã™ã€Â→「ã§ã™ã€Âã®経路ã§生ã˜ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†
Meanwhile, the modern plain form ã derives as:
「ã«ã¦ã‚りã€Âã‹ら出ãŸ「ã§ã‚るã€ÂãÂŒã€Â〔dea〕→〔da〕ã¨変化ã—ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†。→ã§ã‚・ã˜ゃ・ã§ã‚る
Modern ã§ (which actually appears from around the 1300s-1500s) is understood to have evolved from earlier ã«ã¦ (which is still used in formal writing). Classical copular ("is") verb ã‚り equates to modern verb ã‚る.
Looking now at the particular parts of your post:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Well, yes, in the modern language. But historically, ã derives from ã§ + ã‚る -- so this is not a regular kind of conjugation paradigm.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form).
Yes. Though I might not use the term "variation" so much as "polite form".
It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â,
It derives from a contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™, but I don't believe it's considered to be such a contraction in modern regular usage.
which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage)
It's not quite the same as ã§ã‚りã¾ã™. Note that ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ is the humble version of ã‚りã¾ã™. That difference in usage is important. :)
that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
Yes -- but note also that ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ is not a verb unto itself, but simply the particle ã§ plus the verb ã‚りã¾ã™.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Historically, yes. And if you dig around in classical Japanese and older stages of the language, you'll find just that -- ã‚り serves as the primary copular verb.
In modern Japanese, however, ã ・ã§ã™ is the primary copular verb: it closes a predicate, and (optionally) supplies social register information ("politeness"). One no longer says things like 綺麗ã«ã‚り, one says instead 綺麗ã . Similarly, instead of 本ã«ã¦ã‚り, one says 本ã .
Related thread touching upon social register:
- Why can't ã be used after an I-adjective?
I hope the above covers the bases for you. If not, please comment and I can edit the post accordingly.
1
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
Your collection of questions conflate a few things: 1) what is ã ・ã§ã™ in modern Japanese, and 2) how did ã ・ã§ã™ derive historically.
Because of #2, #1 is a bit ... messy. :) So let's start with the history.
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
This isn't an explanation of what ã§ã™ is now, so much as an explanation of the historical derivation. Shogakukan's 国語大辞典 provides this description:
「ã§ãÂӋ–りã¾ã™ã€Â→「ã§ãÂӋ–んã™ã€Â→「ã§ã‚んã™ã€Â→「ã§ãˆã™ã€Â→「ã§ã™ã€Âã®経路ã§生ã˜ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†
Meanwhile, the modern plain form ã derives as:
「ã«ã¦ã‚りã€Âã‹ら出ãŸ「ã§ã‚るã€ÂãÂŒã€Â〔dea〕→〔da〕ã¨変化ã—ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†。→ã§ã‚・ã˜ゃ・ã§ã‚る
Modern ã§ (which actually appears from around the 1300s-1500s) is understood to have evolved from earlier ã«ã¦ (which is still used in formal writing). Classical copular ("is") verb ã‚り equates to modern verb ã‚る.
Looking now at the particular parts of your post:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Well, yes, in the modern language. But historically, ã derives from ã§ + ã‚る -- so this is not a regular kind of conjugation paradigm.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form).
Yes. Though I might not use the term "variation" so much as "polite form".
It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â,
It derives from a contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™, but I don't believe it's considered to be such a contraction in modern regular usage.
which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage)
It's not quite the same as ã§ã‚りã¾ã™. Note that ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ is the humble version of ã‚りã¾ã™. That difference in usage is important. :)
that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
Yes -- but note also that ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ is not a verb unto itself, but simply the particle ã§ plus the verb ã‚りã¾ã™.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Historically, yes. And if you dig around in classical Japanese and older stages of the language, you'll find just that -- ã‚り serves as the primary copular verb.
In modern Japanese, however, ã ・ã§ã™ is the primary copular verb: it closes a predicate, and (optionally) supplies social register information ("politeness"). One no longer says things like 綺麗ã«ã‚り, one says instead 綺麗ã . Similarly, instead of 本ã«ã¦ã‚り, one says 本ã .
Related thread touching upon social register:
- Why can't ã be used after an I-adjective?
I hope the above covers the bases for you. If not, please comment and I can edit the post accordingly.
Your collection of questions conflate a few things: 1) what is ã ・ã§ã™ in modern Japanese, and 2) how did ã ・ã§ã™ derive historically.
Because of #2, #1 is a bit ... messy. :) So let's start with the history.
「ã§ã™ã€Âã¯ã€Â「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€ÂãŒ変化ã—ãŸもã®,
This isn't an explanation of what ã§ã™ is now, so much as an explanation of the historical derivation. Shogakukan's 国語大辞典 provides this description:
「ã§ãÂӋ–りã¾ã™ã€Â→「ã§ãÂӋ–んã™ã€Â→「ã§ã‚んã™ã€Â→「ã§ãˆã™ã€Â→「ã§ã™ã€Âã®経路ã§生ã˜ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†
Meanwhile, the modern plain form ã derives as:
「ã«ã¦ã‚りã€Âã‹ら出ãŸ「ã§ã‚るã€ÂãÂŒã€Â〔dea〕→〔da〕ã¨変化ã—ãŸもã®ã¨ã„ã†。→ã§ã‚・ã˜ゃ・ã§ã‚る
Modern ã§ (which actually appears from around the 1300s-1500s) is understood to have evolved from earlier ã«ã¦ (which is still used in formal writing). Classical copular ("is") verb ã‚り equates to modern verb ã‚る.
Looking now at the particular parts of your post:
「ã§ã€Âã¯「ã ã€Âã®連用形。 「ã§ã€Âis the conjunctive/continuative form of 「ã ã€Â
Well, yes, in the modern language. But historically, ã derives from ã§ + ã‚る -- so this is not a regular kind of conjugation paradigm.
To sum it up, 「ã§ã™〠is a variation of 「ã ã€Â(its polite form).
Yes. Though I might not use the term "variation" so much as "polite form".
It is also a contraction of 「ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ã€Â,
It derives from a contraction of ã§ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™, but I don't believe it's considered to be such a contraction in modern regular usage.
which in turn is the same as 「ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â(forgetting here about the differences in usage)
It's not quite the same as ã§ã‚りã¾ã™. Note that ãÂӋ–ã„ã¾ã™ is the humble version of ã‚りã¾ã™. That difference in usage is important. :)
that is formed by attaching 「ã§〠to the verb「ã‚りã¾ã™ã€Â.
Yes -- but note also that ã§ã‚りã¾ã™ is not a verb unto itself, but simply the particle ã§ plus the verb ã‚りã¾ã™.
So, after this long trip, we arrive to the conclusion that the "hidden verb" behind 「ã§ã™ã€Â, is in fact ã‚る, which is actually (or at least more close to) the sought after "to be".
Historically, yes. And if you dig around in classical Japanese and older stages of the language, you'll find just that -- ã‚り serves as the primary copular verb.
In modern Japanese, however, ã ・ã§ã™ is the primary copular verb: it closes a predicate, and (optionally) supplies social register information ("politeness"). One no longer says things like 綺麗ã«ã‚り, one says instead 綺麗ã . Similarly, instead of 本ã«ã¦ã‚り, one says 本ã .
Related thread touching upon social register:
- Why can't ã be used after an I-adjective?
I hope the above covers the bases for you. If not, please comment and I can edit the post accordingly.
answered 1 hour ago


EirÃkr Útlendi
15.6k12856
15.6k12856
1
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
1
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
1
1
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
Actually I think this is a great answer. Very helpful to clarify what my understanding was. I think I wasn't really far away from the right answer, and was looking just for some remarks like yours to put everything in the right place. It's quite a shame stuff like this is not covered in most of Japanese language books. Sometimes I have a feelings things are "simplified" just to get the reader to get the point.. but they should talk about this stuff somewhere.
– Tommy
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
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