Finding eigenvalue based on vector space and linear operator?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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So given that $L$ is a linear operator from a vector space $V$ to itself, with $V=mathbb R_2[t]$ and $Lf = f'' - f$ I need to show that $lambda = -1$ is the only eigenvalue.
I know how to do this with standard matrices but it has been a couple of years since I've taken differential equations so I'm very rusty and unsure of how to convert this information to a matrix I can use the standard $det(A - lambda I)$ equation on. Any tips?
linear-algebra differential-equations
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
So given that $L$ is a linear operator from a vector space $V$ to itself, with $V=mathbb R_2[t]$ and $Lf = f'' - f$ I need to show that $lambda = -1$ is the only eigenvalue.
I know how to do this with standard matrices but it has been a couple of years since I've taken differential equations so I'm very rusty and unsure of how to convert this information to a matrix I can use the standard $det(A - lambda I)$ equation on. Any tips?
linear-algebra differential-equations
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
So given that $L$ is a linear operator from a vector space $V$ to itself, with $V=mathbb R_2[t]$ and $Lf = f'' - f$ I need to show that $lambda = -1$ is the only eigenvalue.
I know how to do this with standard matrices but it has been a couple of years since I've taken differential equations so I'm very rusty and unsure of how to convert this information to a matrix I can use the standard $det(A - lambda I)$ equation on. Any tips?
linear-algebra differential-equations
So given that $L$ is a linear operator from a vector space $V$ to itself, with $V=mathbb R_2[t]$ and $Lf = f'' - f$ I need to show that $lambda = -1$ is the only eigenvalue.
I know how to do this with standard matrices but it has been a couple of years since I've taken differential equations so I'm very rusty and unsure of how to convert this information to a matrix I can use the standard $det(A - lambda I)$ equation on. Any tips?
linear-algebra differential-equations
linear-algebra differential-equations
asked 2 hours ago
user3491700
465
465
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add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
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accepted
Basis of $V$ is $1,t,t^2$
Write the matrix with respect to this basis
$L(1)=0-1=-1cdot1+0cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t)=0-t=0cdot 1-1cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t^2)=2-t^2=2cdot 1+0cdot t-1cdot t^2$
So matrix is $$beginbmatrix-1 & 0&2\ 0&-1&0\0&0&-1endbmatrix$$
Now you can clearly see $lambda =-1$ is the only eigen value!
For what it's worth:cdot
produces the dot $cdot$
â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
The easiest approach, I think, is to note that
$$
[L + operatornameid]^2f = 0
$$
for all polynomials $f in Bbb R_2[t]$. So, if $f$ is an eigenvector associated with eigenvalue $lambda$, then $[L + operatornameid]^2f = (lambda + 1)^2f = 0$
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Basis of $V$ is $1,t,t^2$
Write the matrix with respect to this basis
$L(1)=0-1=-1cdot1+0cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t)=0-t=0cdot 1-1cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t^2)=2-t^2=2cdot 1+0cdot t-1cdot t^2$
So matrix is $$beginbmatrix-1 & 0&2\ 0&-1&0\0&0&-1endbmatrix$$
Now you can clearly see $lambda =-1$ is the only eigen value!
For what it's worth:cdot
produces the dot $cdot$
â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Basis of $V$ is $1,t,t^2$
Write the matrix with respect to this basis
$L(1)=0-1=-1cdot1+0cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t)=0-t=0cdot 1-1cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t^2)=2-t^2=2cdot 1+0cdot t-1cdot t^2$
So matrix is $$beginbmatrix-1 & 0&2\ 0&-1&0\0&0&-1endbmatrix$$
Now you can clearly see $lambda =-1$ is the only eigen value!
For what it's worth:cdot
produces the dot $cdot$
â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Basis of $V$ is $1,t,t^2$
Write the matrix with respect to this basis
$L(1)=0-1=-1cdot1+0cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t)=0-t=0cdot 1-1cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t^2)=2-t^2=2cdot 1+0cdot t-1cdot t^2$
So matrix is $$beginbmatrix-1 & 0&2\ 0&-1&0\0&0&-1endbmatrix$$
Now you can clearly see $lambda =-1$ is the only eigen value!
Basis of $V$ is $1,t,t^2$
Write the matrix with respect to this basis
$L(1)=0-1=-1cdot1+0cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t)=0-t=0cdot 1-1cdot t+0cdot t^2$
$L(t^2)=2-t^2=2cdot 1+0cdot t-1cdot t^2$
So matrix is $$beginbmatrix-1 & 0&2\ 0&-1&0\0&0&-1endbmatrix$$
Now you can clearly see $lambda =-1$ is the only eigen value!
edited 2 hours ago
answered 2 hours ago
StammeringMathematician
1,091217
1,091217
For what it's worth:cdot
produces the dot $cdot$
â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
For what it's worth:cdot
produces the dot $cdot$
â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
For what it's worth:
cdot
produces the dot $cdot$â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
For what it's worth:
cdot
produces the dot $cdot$â Omnomnomnom
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
I will edit the post. Thanks
â StammeringMathematician
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
The easiest approach, I think, is to note that
$$
[L + operatornameid]^2f = 0
$$
for all polynomials $f in Bbb R_2[t]$. So, if $f$ is an eigenvector associated with eigenvalue $lambda$, then $[L + operatornameid]^2f = (lambda + 1)^2f = 0$
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
The easiest approach, I think, is to note that
$$
[L + operatornameid]^2f = 0
$$
for all polynomials $f in Bbb R_2[t]$. So, if $f$ is an eigenvector associated with eigenvalue $lambda$, then $[L + operatornameid]^2f = (lambda + 1)^2f = 0$
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
The easiest approach, I think, is to note that
$$
[L + operatornameid]^2f = 0
$$
for all polynomials $f in Bbb R_2[t]$. So, if $f$ is an eigenvector associated with eigenvalue $lambda$, then $[L + operatornameid]^2f = (lambda + 1)^2f = 0$
The easiest approach, I think, is to note that
$$
[L + operatornameid]^2f = 0
$$
for all polynomials $f in Bbb R_2[t]$. So, if $f$ is an eigenvector associated with eigenvalue $lambda$, then $[L + operatornameid]^2f = (lambda + 1)^2f = 0$
edited 2 hours ago
answered 2 hours ago
Omnomnomnom
123k785172
123k785172
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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