Closed functions

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DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.










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  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.










share|cite|improve this question















DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.







real-analysis general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces






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edited 18 mins ago

























asked 2 hours ago









duhdave

557




557







  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago












  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago







1




1




There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
– Callus
2 hours ago




There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
– Callus
2 hours ago












There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
– duhdave
2 hours ago




There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
– duhdave
2 hours ago




1




1




Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
– Callus
1 hour ago





Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
– Callus
1 hour ago













Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
– duhdave
58 mins ago




Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
– duhdave
58 mins ago










2 Answers
2






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1
down vote



accepted










You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






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    up vote
    3
    down vote













    The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



    Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
      – duhdave
      2 hours ago










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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 42 mins ago









        Callus

        4,318821




        4,318821




















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago














            up vote
            3
            down vote













            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago












            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 2 hours ago









            Mohammad Riazi-Kermani

            32.2k41853




            32.2k41853











            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago
















            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago















            Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
            – duhdave
            2 hours ago




            Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
            – duhdave
            2 hours ago

















             

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