Closed functions

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.










share|cite|improve this question















DEFINITION: Let M,N be two metric spaces, $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function when for all closed $Fsubset M$, its image, $f(F)$ is closed in N.



PROBLEM Let $f:Mrightarrow N$ is a closed function if and only if for all $yin N$ and all open $Vsubset M$ with $f^-1(y)subset V$ exist an open $Usubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



PROOF ATTEMPT: ($rightarrow$) Let $f$ be a closed function, $yin N$ and $Vsubset M$ such that $f^-1(y)subset V$. Since V is open and $f$ is closed, $M-V$ is a closed and $f(M-V)$ is closed. Then, $N-f(M-V)$ is open, and since $f^-1(y)cap M-V=emptyset$, then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$ $implies$ $yin N-f(M-V)$ which is open, then there is some open $U$ such that $yin Usubset N-f(M-V)implies Ucap f(M-V) = emptyset implies U subset f(V) implies ysubset Usubset f(V)$ and if we apply $f^-1$, then $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$.



QUESTION: Is ($rightarrow$) correctly proven? How could I prove ($leftarrow$) ? Thanks so much for your answers.







real-analysis general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 18 mins ago

























asked 2 hours ago









duhdave

557




557







  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago












  • 1




    There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
    – Callus
    2 hours ago










  • There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
    – duhdave
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
    – Callus
    1 hour ago











  • Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
    – duhdave
    58 mins ago







1




1




There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
– Callus
2 hours ago




There appear to be some typos. Could you double check? I can't figure out what the problem is supposed to be.
– Callus
2 hours ago












There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
– duhdave
2 hours ago




There was a typo in the problem! I meant $f^-1(y)subset Usubset V$! I cant find any other typo :/
– duhdave
2 hours ago




1




1




Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
– Callus
1 hour ago





Are you sure this problem is stated correctly? For example, why not just take $U=V$? Maybe you mean "there exists a $Usubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y)subset f^-1(U) subset V$"?
– Callus
1 hour ago













Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
– duhdave
58 mins ago




Wow, yes! You're totally right! Thanks! I Edited again :)
– duhdave
58 mins ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    3
    down vote













    The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



    Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
      – duhdave
      2 hours ago










    Your Answer




    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    );
    );
    , "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: false,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );













     

    draft saved


    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2928416%2fclosed-functions%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest






























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        You still need to fix the statement of the problem, but your proof is correct now. To prove the other direction, suppose that $f$ is not closed, so there is a closed $Csubset M$ such that $f(C)$ is not closed. Let $yin barf(C)setminus f(C)$. $f^-1(y) in C^c$ open, so there is a $Vsubset N$ open such that $f^-1(y) in f^-1(V) subset C^c$. However, because $y$ is in the closure of $f(C)$, by definition this means that $Vcap f(C) neq emptyset$, so let $z$ be in the intersection. Since $zin f(C)$, there must be $xin C$ such that $f(x)=z$. This means that $xin f^-1(V)$ since $f(x)in V$. But $xnotin C^c$, which contradicts $f^-1(V)subset C^c$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 42 mins ago









        Callus

        4,318821




        4,318821




















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago














            up vote
            3
            down vote













            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago












            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            The following statement $ f^-1(y)cap f(M-V)=emptyset $ does not make sense because $ f^-1(y)$ and $ f(M-V)$ are in different metric spaces. You need to redo this part.



            Drawing a graph will help you staying focused in your spaces.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 2 hours ago









            Mohammad Riazi-Kermani

            32.2k41853




            32.2k41853











            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago
















            • Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
              – duhdave
              2 hours ago















            Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
            – duhdave
            2 hours ago




            Thanks! I meant $f^-1(y) cap M-V=emptyset$ then $ycap f(M-V)=emptyset$!
            – duhdave
            2 hours ago

















             

            draft saved


            draft discarded















































             


            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2928416%2fclosed-functions%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest













































































            Comments

            Popular posts from this blog

            What does second last employer means? [closed]

            Installing NextGIS Connect into QGIS 3?

            One-line joke