Does every set have a power set?

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While reading the probability space in Wikipedia, I'd found the usual formulation is a triplet, which is $displaystyle (Omega ,mathcal F,P)$.



Upon my understanding, the middle $mathcal F$ is a power set of $Omega$ which will be allocated with real-valued probabiilty by $P$.



If every set in this nature has power set, there might be no necessity of introduction of $mathcal F$ I guess however, I've never thought of a set which doesn't have its power set.



Is there any set that doesn't have power set? or if not, which means every set has its power set, is there any plausible reason that $mathcal F$ is introduced in probability formulation?










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  • Could you say more specifically where you read that $mathcal F$ is the power set of $Omega$? This is not true in general, and I can't find where the Wikipedia article on probability spaces says that.
    – joriki
    2 hours ago










  • @joriki your link is what I exactly intended to refer in OP. as you mentioned, I thought myself intuitively reasonable to regard it as a power set.. but it's not. Thanks for the correction point!
    – Beverlie
    2 hours ago














up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












While reading the probability space in Wikipedia, I'd found the usual formulation is a triplet, which is $displaystyle (Omega ,mathcal F,P)$.



Upon my understanding, the middle $mathcal F$ is a power set of $Omega$ which will be allocated with real-valued probabiilty by $P$.



If every set in this nature has power set, there might be no necessity of introduction of $mathcal F$ I guess however, I've never thought of a set which doesn't have its power set.



Is there any set that doesn't have power set? or if not, which means every set has its power set, is there any plausible reason that $mathcal F$ is introduced in probability formulation?










share|cite|improve this question























  • Could you say more specifically where you read that $mathcal F$ is the power set of $Omega$? This is not true in general, and I can't find where the Wikipedia article on probability spaces says that.
    – joriki
    2 hours ago










  • @joriki your link is what I exactly intended to refer in OP. as you mentioned, I thought myself intuitively reasonable to regard it as a power set.. but it's not. Thanks for the correction point!
    – Beverlie
    2 hours ago












up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1





While reading the probability space in Wikipedia, I'd found the usual formulation is a triplet, which is $displaystyle (Omega ,mathcal F,P)$.



Upon my understanding, the middle $mathcal F$ is a power set of $Omega$ which will be allocated with real-valued probabiilty by $P$.



If every set in this nature has power set, there might be no necessity of introduction of $mathcal F$ I guess however, I've never thought of a set which doesn't have its power set.



Is there any set that doesn't have power set? or if not, which means every set has its power set, is there any plausible reason that $mathcal F$ is introduced in probability formulation?










share|cite|improve this question















While reading the probability space in Wikipedia, I'd found the usual formulation is a triplet, which is $displaystyle (Omega ,mathcal F,P)$.



Upon my understanding, the middle $mathcal F$ is a power set of $Omega$ which will be allocated with real-valued probabiilty by $P$.



If every set in this nature has power set, there might be no necessity of introduction of $mathcal F$ I guess however, I've never thought of a set which doesn't have its power set.



Is there any set that doesn't have power set? or if not, which means every set has its power set, is there any plausible reason that $mathcal F$ is introduced in probability formulation?







probability elementary-set-theory






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edited 8 mins ago









peterh

2,15441631




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asked 2 hours ago









Beverlie

1,098318




1,098318











  • Could you say more specifically where you read that $mathcal F$ is the power set of $Omega$? This is not true in general, and I can't find where the Wikipedia article on probability spaces says that.
    – joriki
    2 hours ago










  • @joriki your link is what I exactly intended to refer in OP. as you mentioned, I thought myself intuitively reasonable to regard it as a power set.. but it's not. Thanks for the correction point!
    – Beverlie
    2 hours ago
















  • Could you say more specifically where you read that $mathcal F$ is the power set of $Omega$? This is not true in general, and I can't find where the Wikipedia article on probability spaces says that.
    – joriki
    2 hours ago










  • @joriki your link is what I exactly intended to refer in OP. as you mentioned, I thought myself intuitively reasonable to regard it as a power set.. but it's not. Thanks for the correction point!
    – Beverlie
    2 hours ago















Could you say more specifically where you read that $mathcal F$ is the power set of $Omega$? This is not true in general, and I can't find where the Wikipedia article on probability spaces says that.
– joriki
2 hours ago




Could you say more specifically where you read that $mathcal F$ is the power set of $Omega$? This is not true in general, and I can't find where the Wikipedia article on probability spaces says that.
– joriki
2 hours ago












@joriki your link is what I exactly intended to refer in OP. as you mentioned, I thought myself intuitively reasonable to regard it as a power set.. but it's not. Thanks for the correction point!
– Beverlie
2 hours ago




@joriki your link is what I exactly intended to refer in OP. as you mentioned, I thought myself intuitively reasonable to regard it as a power set.. but it's not. Thanks for the correction point!
– Beverlie
2 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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up vote
8
down vote













In standard mathematics, every set has a power set. This is encoded in the Axiom of Power Set. However, your confusion lies with the definition of a probability space, not with set theory.



The set $mathcal F$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal F, P)$ is not necessarily the power set of $Omega$. The set $mathcal F$ is a subset of the power set $mathcal P(Omega)$. This $mathcal F$ is required to be a so-called sigma algebra, which tells you that it shares some properties in common with the full power set, but it need not be the full power set at all.



In particular, for any $Omega$, you can take $mathcal F = emptyset, Omega$, and this will be a sigma algebra on $Omega$. Unless $|Omega| leq 1$, it will not be the power set.






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  • thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
    – Beverlie
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
    – David K
    38 mins ago


















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2
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This $mathcalF$ is actually not the power set, but a sigma algebra. The power set is a sigma algebra and is often used, but sometimes probability theory requires smaller subsets of the power set in order to properly define the problem.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    I think the notation here is due to the fact that a probability space is, is particular, a finite measure space. So, in the more general sense, the set $mathcalF$ does not need to be the power set, it is sufficient that the set $mathcalF$ satisfy the axioms of a $sigma$-algebra of subsets of $Omega$. And yes, every set has a power set, it is guaranteed by the power set axiom in set theory. If you're interested, study some measure theory, which provides the mathematical tools for developing rigorous probability.






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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      8
      down vote













      In standard mathematics, every set has a power set. This is encoded in the Axiom of Power Set. However, your confusion lies with the definition of a probability space, not with set theory.



      The set $mathcal F$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal F, P)$ is not necessarily the power set of $Omega$. The set $mathcal F$ is a subset of the power set $mathcal P(Omega)$. This $mathcal F$ is required to be a so-called sigma algebra, which tells you that it shares some properties in common with the full power set, but it need not be the full power set at all.



      In particular, for any $Omega$, you can take $mathcal F = emptyset, Omega$, and this will be a sigma algebra on $Omega$. Unless $|Omega| leq 1$, it will not be the power set.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
        – Beverlie
        2 hours ago






      • 1




        I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
        – David K
        38 mins ago















      up vote
      8
      down vote













      In standard mathematics, every set has a power set. This is encoded in the Axiom of Power Set. However, your confusion lies with the definition of a probability space, not with set theory.



      The set $mathcal F$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal F, P)$ is not necessarily the power set of $Omega$. The set $mathcal F$ is a subset of the power set $mathcal P(Omega)$. This $mathcal F$ is required to be a so-called sigma algebra, which tells you that it shares some properties in common with the full power set, but it need not be the full power set at all.



      In particular, for any $Omega$, you can take $mathcal F = emptyset, Omega$, and this will be a sigma algebra on $Omega$. Unless $|Omega| leq 1$, it will not be the power set.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
        – Beverlie
        2 hours ago






      • 1




        I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
        – David K
        38 mins ago













      up vote
      8
      down vote










      up vote
      8
      down vote









      In standard mathematics, every set has a power set. This is encoded in the Axiom of Power Set. However, your confusion lies with the definition of a probability space, not with set theory.



      The set $mathcal F$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal F, P)$ is not necessarily the power set of $Omega$. The set $mathcal F$ is a subset of the power set $mathcal P(Omega)$. This $mathcal F$ is required to be a so-called sigma algebra, which tells you that it shares some properties in common with the full power set, but it need not be the full power set at all.



      In particular, for any $Omega$, you can take $mathcal F = emptyset, Omega$, and this will be a sigma algebra on $Omega$. Unless $|Omega| leq 1$, it will not be the power set.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      In standard mathematics, every set has a power set. This is encoded in the Axiom of Power Set. However, your confusion lies with the definition of a probability space, not with set theory.



      The set $mathcal F$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal F, P)$ is not necessarily the power set of $Omega$. The set $mathcal F$ is a subset of the power set $mathcal P(Omega)$. This $mathcal F$ is required to be a so-called sigma algebra, which tells you that it shares some properties in common with the full power set, but it need not be the full power set at all.



      In particular, for any $Omega$, you can take $mathcal F = emptyset, Omega$, and this will be a sigma algebra on $Omega$. Unless $|Omega| leq 1$, it will not be the power set.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 2 hours ago









      Mees de Vries

      14.5k12348




      14.5k12348











      • thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
        – Beverlie
        2 hours ago






      • 1




        I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
        – David K
        38 mins ago

















      • thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
        – Beverlie
        2 hours ago






      • 1




        I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
        – David K
        38 mins ago
















      thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
      – Beverlie
      2 hours ago




      thanks for letting me the point that every set has a power set is an axiom.. never known that.
      – Beverlie
      2 hours ago




      1




      1




      I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
      – David K
      38 mins ago





      I think it is worth pointing out that in many cases we do not have a good way of using the power set of $Omega$ for the set $mathcal F$, so the practice of allowing the use of a subset of the power set is not just something we arbitrarily choose to do, it's practically a necessity.
      – David K
      38 mins ago











      up vote
      2
      down vote













      This $mathcalF$ is actually not the power set, but a sigma algebra. The power set is a sigma algebra and is often used, but sometimes probability theory requires smaller subsets of the power set in order to properly define the problem.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        This $mathcalF$ is actually not the power set, but a sigma algebra. The power set is a sigma algebra and is often used, but sometimes probability theory requires smaller subsets of the power set in order to properly define the problem.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          This $mathcalF$ is actually not the power set, but a sigma algebra. The power set is a sigma algebra and is often used, but sometimes probability theory requires smaller subsets of the power set in order to properly define the problem.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          This $mathcalF$ is actually not the power set, but a sigma algebra. The power set is a sigma algebra and is often used, but sometimes probability theory requires smaller subsets of the power set in order to properly define the problem.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 2 hours ago









          ZempZemp

          212




          212




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              I think the notation here is due to the fact that a probability space is, is particular, a finite measure space. So, in the more general sense, the set $mathcalF$ does not need to be the power set, it is sufficient that the set $mathcalF$ satisfy the axioms of a $sigma$-algebra of subsets of $Omega$. And yes, every set has a power set, it is guaranteed by the power set axiom in set theory. If you're interested, study some measure theory, which provides the mathematical tools for developing rigorous probability.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                I think the notation here is due to the fact that a probability space is, is particular, a finite measure space. So, in the more general sense, the set $mathcalF$ does not need to be the power set, it is sufficient that the set $mathcalF$ satisfy the axioms of a $sigma$-algebra of subsets of $Omega$. And yes, every set has a power set, it is guaranteed by the power set axiom in set theory. If you're interested, study some measure theory, which provides the mathematical tools for developing rigorous probability.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  I think the notation here is due to the fact that a probability space is, is particular, a finite measure space. So, in the more general sense, the set $mathcalF$ does not need to be the power set, it is sufficient that the set $mathcalF$ satisfy the axioms of a $sigma$-algebra of subsets of $Omega$. And yes, every set has a power set, it is guaranteed by the power set axiom in set theory. If you're interested, study some measure theory, which provides the mathematical tools for developing rigorous probability.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  I think the notation here is due to the fact that a probability space is, is particular, a finite measure space. So, in the more general sense, the set $mathcalF$ does not need to be the power set, it is sufficient that the set $mathcalF$ satisfy the axioms of a $sigma$-algebra of subsets of $Omega$. And yes, every set has a power set, it is guaranteed by the power set axiom in set theory. If you're interested, study some measure theory, which provides the mathematical tools for developing rigorous probability.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 2 hours ago









                  Nuntractatuses Amável

                  3059




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