Identical Function Query

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If $f(x)=fracxln x$ & $g(x)=fracln xx$. Then identify the correct statement.



A) $frac1g(x)$ and $f(x)$ are identical functions



B) $frac1f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are identical functions



C) $f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



D) $frac1f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



I don't have the solution but as per the answer key Only A is the correct statement , B,C,D are incorrect statement .



My Approach for B let $t(x)=frac1f(x)$ , now the question is whether $t(x)$ & $g(x)$ are identical function, my thought would be that they are identical function because for identical function we need to check domain and range on $t(x)$ and not on its reciprocal.But on contrary in the ANSWER Key this is mentioned as INCORRECT.



Regarding C and D I don't know why it is incorrect.










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    If $f(x)=fracxln x$ & $g(x)=fracln xx$. Then identify the correct statement.



    A) $frac1g(x)$ and $f(x)$ are identical functions



    B) $frac1f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are identical functions



    C) $f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



    D) $frac1f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



    I don't have the solution but as per the answer key Only A is the correct statement , B,C,D are incorrect statement .



    My Approach for B let $t(x)=frac1f(x)$ , now the question is whether $t(x)$ & $g(x)$ are identical function, my thought would be that they are identical function because for identical function we need to check domain and range on $t(x)$ and not on its reciprocal.But on contrary in the ANSWER Key this is mentioned as INCORRECT.



    Regarding C and D I don't know why it is incorrect.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      If $f(x)=fracxln x$ & $g(x)=fracln xx$. Then identify the correct statement.



      A) $frac1g(x)$ and $f(x)$ are identical functions



      B) $frac1f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are identical functions



      C) $f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



      D) $frac1f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



      I don't have the solution but as per the answer key Only A is the correct statement , B,C,D are incorrect statement .



      My Approach for B let $t(x)=frac1f(x)$ , now the question is whether $t(x)$ & $g(x)$ are identical function, my thought would be that they are identical function because for identical function we need to check domain and range on $t(x)$ and not on its reciprocal.But on contrary in the ANSWER Key this is mentioned as INCORRECT.



      Regarding C and D I don't know why it is incorrect.










      share|cite|improve this question















      If $f(x)=fracxln x$ & $g(x)=fracln xx$. Then identify the correct statement.



      A) $frac1g(x)$ and $f(x)$ are identical functions



      B) $frac1f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are identical functions



      C) $f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



      D) $frac1f(x)cdot g(x)=1 forall x>0$



      I don't have the solution but as per the answer key Only A is the correct statement , B,C,D are incorrect statement .



      My Approach for B let $t(x)=frac1f(x)$ , now the question is whether $t(x)$ & $g(x)$ are identical function, my thought would be that they are identical function because for identical function we need to check domain and range on $t(x)$ and not on its reciprocal.But on contrary in the ANSWER Key this is mentioned as INCORRECT.



      Regarding C and D I don't know why it is incorrect.







      functions






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      edited 1 hour ago









      zipirovich

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      asked 2 hours ago









      Samar Imam Zaidi

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          2 Answers
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          You're on the right track: the key to this question is to identify the domains of all the functions involved. Here are some of them.



          • Consider the function $g(x)=dfracln xx$. The domain of this function is $x>0$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$. (I hope you understand why.)


          • Consider the function $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$. This function, since it involves $g(x)$, is only defined when $g(x)$ is defined; and moreover, we can't have $g(x)=0$. So we take the domain of $g(x)$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$, and exclude all the points where $g(x)=dfracln xx=0$. There's only one such point, $x=1$. Therefore, the domain of $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$ is $xin(0,1)cup(1,+infty)$.


          Similarly, you can find the domains of $f(x)$, $dfrac1f(x)$, etc. And you should see that the domains of the two functions in (A) are the same, but in (B) they are not.



          As for (C) and (D), again it's about the domains. For example, in (C), the expression $f(x)cdot g(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$ because $f(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$. So the statement is not true at $x=1$ (the left-hand side is undefined, and as such it's not equal to $1$), and thus we can't say that it holds for all $x>0$.






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            The important point is that $ln 1=0$, so you can't divide by it. In A you get a $ln x$ in both denominators, so both sides of the equation are undefined at $x=1$. In B, $g(x)$ is nicely defined for all $x gt 0$, but $f(1)$ is not so $frac 1f(1)$ is not either. C and D both fail for $x=1$ for the same reason.






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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              You're on the right track: the key to this question is to identify the domains of all the functions involved. Here are some of them.



              • Consider the function $g(x)=dfracln xx$. The domain of this function is $x>0$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$. (I hope you understand why.)


              • Consider the function $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$. This function, since it involves $g(x)$, is only defined when $g(x)$ is defined; and moreover, we can't have $g(x)=0$. So we take the domain of $g(x)$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$, and exclude all the points where $g(x)=dfracln xx=0$. There's only one such point, $x=1$. Therefore, the domain of $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$ is $xin(0,1)cup(1,+infty)$.


              Similarly, you can find the domains of $f(x)$, $dfrac1f(x)$, etc. And you should see that the domains of the two functions in (A) are the same, but in (B) they are not.



              As for (C) and (D), again it's about the domains. For example, in (C), the expression $f(x)cdot g(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$ because $f(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$. So the statement is not true at $x=1$ (the left-hand side is undefined, and as such it's not equal to $1$), and thus we can't say that it holds for all $x>0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted










                You're on the right track: the key to this question is to identify the domains of all the functions involved. Here are some of them.



                • Consider the function $g(x)=dfracln xx$. The domain of this function is $x>0$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$. (I hope you understand why.)


                • Consider the function $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$. This function, since it involves $g(x)$, is only defined when $g(x)$ is defined; and moreover, we can't have $g(x)=0$. So we take the domain of $g(x)$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$, and exclude all the points where $g(x)=dfracln xx=0$. There's only one such point, $x=1$. Therefore, the domain of $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$ is $xin(0,1)cup(1,+infty)$.


                Similarly, you can find the domains of $f(x)$, $dfrac1f(x)$, etc. And you should see that the domains of the two functions in (A) are the same, but in (B) they are not.



                As for (C) and (D), again it's about the domains. For example, in (C), the expression $f(x)cdot g(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$ because $f(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$. So the statement is not true at $x=1$ (the left-hand side is undefined, and as such it's not equal to $1$), and thus we can't say that it holds for all $x>0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  You're on the right track: the key to this question is to identify the domains of all the functions involved. Here are some of them.



                  • Consider the function $g(x)=dfracln xx$. The domain of this function is $x>0$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$. (I hope you understand why.)


                  • Consider the function $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$. This function, since it involves $g(x)$, is only defined when $g(x)$ is defined; and moreover, we can't have $g(x)=0$. So we take the domain of $g(x)$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$, and exclude all the points where $g(x)=dfracln xx=0$. There's only one such point, $x=1$. Therefore, the domain of $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$ is $xin(0,1)cup(1,+infty)$.


                  Similarly, you can find the domains of $f(x)$, $dfrac1f(x)$, etc. And you should see that the domains of the two functions in (A) are the same, but in (B) they are not.



                  As for (C) and (D), again it's about the domains. For example, in (C), the expression $f(x)cdot g(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$ because $f(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$. So the statement is not true at $x=1$ (the left-hand side is undefined, and as such it's not equal to $1$), and thus we can't say that it holds for all $x>0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  You're on the right track: the key to this question is to identify the domains of all the functions involved. Here are some of them.



                  • Consider the function $g(x)=dfracln xx$. The domain of this function is $x>0$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$. (I hope you understand why.)


                  • Consider the function $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$. This function, since it involves $g(x)$, is only defined when $g(x)$ is defined; and moreover, we can't have $g(x)=0$. So we take the domain of $g(x)$, i.e. $xin(0,+infty)$, and exclude all the points where $g(x)=dfracln xx=0$. There's only one such point, $x=1$. Therefore, the domain of $G(x)=dfrac1g(x)$ is $xin(0,1)cup(1,+infty)$.


                  Similarly, you can find the domains of $f(x)$, $dfrac1f(x)$, etc. And you should see that the domains of the two functions in (A) are the same, but in (B) they are not.



                  As for (C) and (D), again it's about the domains. For example, in (C), the expression $f(x)cdot g(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$ because $f(x)$ is undefined at $x=1$. So the statement is not true at $x=1$ (the left-hand side is undefined, and as such it's not equal to $1$), and thus we can't say that it holds for all $x>0$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












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                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 1 hour ago









                  zipirovich

                  10.2k11630




                  10.2k11630




















                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote













                      The important point is that $ln 1=0$, so you can't divide by it. In A you get a $ln x$ in both denominators, so both sides of the equation are undefined at $x=1$. In B, $g(x)$ is nicely defined for all $x gt 0$, but $f(1)$ is not so $frac 1f(1)$ is not either. C and D both fail for $x=1$ for the same reason.






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        The important point is that $ln 1=0$, so you can't divide by it. In A you get a $ln x$ in both denominators, so both sides of the equation are undefined at $x=1$. In B, $g(x)$ is nicely defined for all $x gt 0$, but $f(1)$ is not so $frac 1f(1)$ is not either. C and D both fail for $x=1$ for the same reason.






                        share|cite|improve this answer






















                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote









                          The important point is that $ln 1=0$, so you can't divide by it. In A you get a $ln x$ in both denominators, so both sides of the equation are undefined at $x=1$. In B, $g(x)$ is nicely defined for all $x gt 0$, but $f(1)$ is not so $frac 1f(1)$ is not either. C and D both fail for $x=1$ for the same reason.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          The important point is that $ln 1=0$, so you can't divide by it. In A you get a $ln x$ in both denominators, so both sides of the equation are undefined at $x=1$. In B, $g(x)$ is nicely defined for all $x gt 0$, but $f(1)$ is not so $frac 1f(1)$ is not either. C and D both fail for $x=1$ for the same reason.







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                          answered 1 hour ago









                          Ross Millikan

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