Show that following quotient ring is field.

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I need to show that following ring is field.$$R[x]/(x^2+1)$$
I know $(x^2+1)$ is an ideal the unity of the quotient ring is $1+(x^2+1)$.
Hence I need to show that for any $f(x)in R[x]$ I can find $g(x)in R[x]$ such that $$f(x)+(x^2+1)g(x)+(x^2+1) =1+(x^2+1)$$
Expanding on left gives us $$f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)$$
Hence I need to show that there is a $g(x)$ such that $f(x)g(x)-1in (x^2+1)$.










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  • 4




    Hint: I am pretty certain you have heard about (and worked in) this field before, but usually we don't use $x$, but another letter.
    – Arthur
    37 mins ago







  • 3




    Alternativly show this is a mximal Ideal
    – Sheve
    33 mins ago






  • 1




    Or consider a specific mapping $fcolon mathbbR[x]rightarrowmathbbC$
    – Hypertrooper
    32 mins ago















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I need to show that following ring is field.$$R[x]/(x^2+1)$$
I know $(x^2+1)$ is an ideal the unity of the quotient ring is $1+(x^2+1)$.
Hence I need to show that for any $f(x)in R[x]$ I can find $g(x)in R[x]$ such that $$f(x)+(x^2+1)g(x)+(x^2+1) =1+(x^2+1)$$
Expanding on left gives us $$f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)$$
Hence I need to show that there is a $g(x)$ such that $f(x)g(x)-1in (x^2+1)$.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 4




    Hint: I am pretty certain you have heard about (and worked in) this field before, but usually we don't use $x$, but another letter.
    – Arthur
    37 mins ago







  • 3




    Alternativly show this is a mximal Ideal
    – Sheve
    33 mins ago






  • 1




    Or consider a specific mapping $fcolon mathbbR[x]rightarrowmathbbC$
    – Hypertrooper
    32 mins ago













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I need to show that following ring is field.$$R[x]/(x^2+1)$$
I know $(x^2+1)$ is an ideal the unity of the quotient ring is $1+(x^2+1)$.
Hence I need to show that for any $f(x)in R[x]$ I can find $g(x)in R[x]$ such that $$f(x)+(x^2+1)g(x)+(x^2+1) =1+(x^2+1)$$
Expanding on left gives us $$f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)$$
Hence I need to show that there is a $g(x)$ such that $f(x)g(x)-1in (x^2+1)$.










share|cite|improve this question















I need to show that following ring is field.$$R[x]/(x^2+1)$$
I know $(x^2+1)$ is an ideal the unity of the quotient ring is $1+(x^2+1)$.
Hence I need to show that for any $f(x)in R[x]$ I can find $g(x)in R[x]$ such that $$f(x)+(x^2+1)g(x)+(x^2+1) =1+(x^2+1)$$
Expanding on left gives us $$f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)$$
Hence I need to show that there is a $g(x)$ such that $f(x)g(x)-1in (x^2+1)$.







abstract-algebra polynomials ring-theory ideals






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edited 5 mins ago









José Carlos Santos

133k17107196




133k17107196










asked 41 mins ago









Piyush Divyanakar

3,331222




3,331222







  • 4




    Hint: I am pretty certain you have heard about (and worked in) this field before, but usually we don't use $x$, but another letter.
    – Arthur
    37 mins ago







  • 3




    Alternativly show this is a mximal Ideal
    – Sheve
    33 mins ago






  • 1




    Or consider a specific mapping $fcolon mathbbR[x]rightarrowmathbbC$
    – Hypertrooper
    32 mins ago













  • 4




    Hint: I am pretty certain you have heard about (and worked in) this field before, but usually we don't use $x$, but another letter.
    – Arthur
    37 mins ago







  • 3




    Alternativly show this is a mximal Ideal
    – Sheve
    33 mins ago






  • 1




    Or consider a specific mapping $fcolon mathbbR[x]rightarrowmathbbC$
    – Hypertrooper
    32 mins ago








4




4




Hint: I am pretty certain you have heard about (and worked in) this field before, but usually we don't use $x$, but another letter.
– Arthur
37 mins ago





Hint: I am pretty certain you have heard about (and worked in) this field before, but usually we don't use $x$, but another letter.
– Arthur
37 mins ago





3




3




Alternativly show this is a mximal Ideal
– Sheve
33 mins ago




Alternativly show this is a mximal Ideal
– Sheve
33 mins ago




1




1




Or consider a specific mapping $fcolon mathbbR[x]rightarrowmathbbC$
– Hypertrooper
32 mins ago





Or consider a specific mapping $fcolon mathbbR[x]rightarrowmathbbC$
– Hypertrooper
32 mins ago











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Since $x^2+1nmid f(x)$ and $1+x^2$ is irreducible (in $mathbbR[x]$), $x^2+1$ and $f(x)$ are coprime in $mathbbR[x]$ and therefore thre are $g(x),h(x)inmathbbR[x]$ such that $f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)h(x)=1$. So, $f(x)g(x)in1+(x^2+1)$.






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  • Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    28 mins ago










  • Yes, that is what I am using here.
    – José Carlos Santos
    25 mins ago

















up vote
1
down vote













Another hint would be: You're adjoining an element $x$ to the field of real numbers, and by modding out with $(x^2+1)$, you're declaring that this $x$ satisfies $x^2 + 1 = 0$, or $x^2=-1$. Do you know any numbers that satisfy this equation?






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    A different view would be to consider the ring substitution homomorphism $phi:Bbb R[x]rightarrow Bbb C$ with $phi(f)=f(i)$, where $i$ is a zero of $x^2+1$. This mapping is surjective, since $Bbb C = Bbb R[i] = Bbb R(i)$ (ring adjoint equals field adjoint here). Thus by the Homomorphism theorem, $Bbb R[x]/ker phi$ is isomorphic to $Bbb C$. The kernel is a principal ideal generated by the minimal polynomial $x^2+1$ of $i$ over $Bbb R$. Qed.






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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Since $x^2+1nmid f(x)$ and $1+x^2$ is irreducible (in $mathbbR[x]$), $x^2+1$ and $f(x)$ are coprime in $mathbbR[x]$ and therefore thre are $g(x),h(x)inmathbbR[x]$ such that $f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)h(x)=1$. So, $f(x)g(x)in1+(x^2+1)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
        – Piyush Divyanakar
        28 mins ago










      • Yes, that is what I am using here.
        – José Carlos Santos
        25 mins ago














      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Since $x^2+1nmid f(x)$ and $1+x^2$ is irreducible (in $mathbbR[x]$), $x^2+1$ and $f(x)$ are coprime in $mathbbR[x]$ and therefore thre are $g(x),h(x)inmathbbR[x]$ such that $f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)h(x)=1$. So, $f(x)g(x)in1+(x^2+1)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
        – Piyush Divyanakar
        28 mins ago










      • Yes, that is what I am using here.
        – José Carlos Santos
        25 mins ago












      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted






      Since $x^2+1nmid f(x)$ and $1+x^2$ is irreducible (in $mathbbR[x]$), $x^2+1$ and $f(x)$ are coprime in $mathbbR[x]$ and therefore thre are $g(x),h(x)inmathbbR[x]$ such that $f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)h(x)=1$. So, $f(x)g(x)in1+(x^2+1)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Since $x^2+1nmid f(x)$ and $1+x^2$ is irreducible (in $mathbbR[x]$), $x^2+1$ and $f(x)$ are coprime in $mathbbR[x]$ and therefore thre are $g(x),h(x)inmathbbR[x]$ such that $f(x)g(x)+(x^2+1)h(x)=1$. So, $f(x)g(x)in1+(x^2+1)$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 31 mins ago









      José Carlos Santos

      133k17107196




      133k17107196











      • Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
        – Piyush Divyanakar
        28 mins ago










      • Yes, that is what I am using here.
        – José Carlos Santos
        25 mins ago
















      • Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
        – Piyush Divyanakar
        28 mins ago










      • Yes, that is what I am using here.
        – José Carlos Santos
        25 mins ago















      Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
      – Piyush Divyanakar
      28 mins ago




      Is this bezout's identity for polynomial rings/
      – Piyush Divyanakar
      28 mins ago












      Yes, that is what I am using here.
      – José Carlos Santos
      25 mins ago




      Yes, that is what I am using here.
      – José Carlos Santos
      25 mins ago










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Another hint would be: You're adjoining an element $x$ to the field of real numbers, and by modding out with $(x^2+1)$, you're declaring that this $x$ satisfies $x^2 + 1 = 0$, or $x^2=-1$. Do you know any numbers that satisfy this equation?






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        Another hint would be: You're adjoining an element $x$ to the field of real numbers, and by modding out with $(x^2+1)$, you're declaring that this $x$ satisfies $x^2 + 1 = 0$, or $x^2=-1$. Do you know any numbers that satisfy this equation?






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Another hint would be: You're adjoining an element $x$ to the field of real numbers, and by modding out with $(x^2+1)$, you're declaring that this $x$ satisfies $x^2 + 1 = 0$, or $x^2=-1$. Do you know any numbers that satisfy this equation?






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Another hint would be: You're adjoining an element $x$ to the field of real numbers, and by modding out with $(x^2+1)$, you're declaring that this $x$ satisfies $x^2 + 1 = 0$, or $x^2=-1$. Do you know any numbers that satisfy this equation?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 28 mins ago









          Teddan the Terran

          1,178210




          1,178210




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              A different view would be to consider the ring substitution homomorphism $phi:Bbb R[x]rightarrow Bbb C$ with $phi(f)=f(i)$, where $i$ is a zero of $x^2+1$. This mapping is surjective, since $Bbb C = Bbb R[i] = Bbb R(i)$ (ring adjoint equals field adjoint here). Thus by the Homomorphism theorem, $Bbb R[x]/ker phi$ is isomorphic to $Bbb C$. The kernel is a principal ideal generated by the minimal polynomial $x^2+1$ of $i$ over $Bbb R$. Qed.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                A different view would be to consider the ring substitution homomorphism $phi:Bbb R[x]rightarrow Bbb C$ with $phi(f)=f(i)$, where $i$ is a zero of $x^2+1$. This mapping is surjective, since $Bbb C = Bbb R[i] = Bbb R(i)$ (ring adjoint equals field adjoint here). Thus by the Homomorphism theorem, $Bbb R[x]/ker phi$ is isomorphic to $Bbb C$. The kernel is a principal ideal generated by the minimal polynomial $x^2+1$ of $i$ over $Bbb R$. Qed.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  A different view would be to consider the ring substitution homomorphism $phi:Bbb R[x]rightarrow Bbb C$ with $phi(f)=f(i)$, where $i$ is a zero of $x^2+1$. This mapping is surjective, since $Bbb C = Bbb R[i] = Bbb R(i)$ (ring adjoint equals field adjoint here). Thus by the Homomorphism theorem, $Bbb R[x]/ker phi$ is isomorphic to $Bbb C$. The kernel is a principal ideal generated by the minimal polynomial $x^2+1$ of $i$ over $Bbb R$. Qed.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  A different view would be to consider the ring substitution homomorphism $phi:Bbb R[x]rightarrow Bbb C$ with $phi(f)=f(i)$, where $i$ is a zero of $x^2+1$. This mapping is surjective, since $Bbb C = Bbb R[i] = Bbb R(i)$ (ring adjoint equals field adjoint here). Thus by the Homomorphism theorem, $Bbb R[x]/ker phi$ is isomorphic to $Bbb C$. The kernel is a principal ideal generated by the minimal polynomial $x^2+1$ of $i$ over $Bbb R$. Qed.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 13 mins ago









                  Wuestenfux

                  1,936139




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