Are there rings with uncountably many irreducible elements (prime elements, if in a PID)?

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I'm playing around and trying to construct rings with different numbers of irreducible elements, hence the above question.










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    Massive overkill: since being irreducible/prime is a first-order condition, take a nontrivial ultrapower of any ring with infinitely many irreducible elements.
    – Noah Schweber
    3 hours ago










  • @NoahSchweber: The term "first-order" is very common but seems to be one used in different branches of mathematics with different meanings. And ultrafilter is also unfamiliar to me. But if a a result in algebra can be proved from other branches I'd be happy to learn more about that branch. Is that logic?
    – P Vanchinathan
    2 hours ago














up vote
2
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I'm playing around and trying to construct rings with different numbers of irreducible elements, hence the above question.










share|cite|improve this question









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Federica Zanni is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 1




    Massive overkill: since being irreducible/prime is a first-order condition, take a nontrivial ultrapower of any ring with infinitely many irreducible elements.
    – Noah Schweber
    3 hours ago










  • @NoahSchweber: The term "first-order" is very common but seems to be one used in different branches of mathematics with different meanings. And ultrafilter is also unfamiliar to me. But if a a result in algebra can be proved from other branches I'd be happy to learn more about that branch. Is that logic?
    – P Vanchinathan
    2 hours ago












up vote
2
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up vote
2
down vote

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I'm playing around and trying to construct rings with different numbers of irreducible elements, hence the above question.










share|cite|improve this question









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Federica Zanni is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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I'm playing around and trying to construct rings with different numbers of irreducible elements, hence the above question.







elementary-set-theory ring-theory






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edited 3 hours ago









Andrés E. Caicedo

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Check out our Code of Conduct.







  • 1




    Massive overkill: since being irreducible/prime is a first-order condition, take a nontrivial ultrapower of any ring with infinitely many irreducible elements.
    – Noah Schweber
    3 hours ago










  • @NoahSchweber: The term "first-order" is very common but seems to be one used in different branches of mathematics with different meanings. And ultrafilter is also unfamiliar to me. But if a a result in algebra can be proved from other branches I'd be happy to learn more about that branch. Is that logic?
    – P Vanchinathan
    2 hours ago












  • 1




    Massive overkill: since being irreducible/prime is a first-order condition, take a nontrivial ultrapower of any ring with infinitely many irreducible elements.
    – Noah Schweber
    3 hours ago










  • @NoahSchweber: The term "first-order" is very common but seems to be one used in different branches of mathematics with different meanings. And ultrafilter is also unfamiliar to me. But if a a result in algebra can be proved from other branches I'd be happy to learn more about that branch. Is that logic?
    – P Vanchinathan
    2 hours ago







1




1




Massive overkill: since being irreducible/prime is a first-order condition, take a nontrivial ultrapower of any ring with infinitely many irreducible elements.
– Noah Schweber
3 hours ago




Massive overkill: since being irreducible/prime is a first-order condition, take a nontrivial ultrapower of any ring with infinitely many irreducible elements.
– Noah Schweber
3 hours ago












@NoahSchweber: The term "first-order" is very common but seems to be one used in different branches of mathematics with different meanings. And ultrafilter is also unfamiliar to me. But if a a result in algebra can be proved from other branches I'd be happy to learn more about that branch. Is that logic?
– P Vanchinathan
2 hours ago




@NoahSchweber: The term "first-order" is very common but seems to be one used in different branches of mathematics with different meanings. And ultrafilter is also unfamiliar to me. But if a a result in algebra can be proved from other branches I'd be happy to learn more about that branch. Is that logic?
– P Vanchinathan
2 hours ago










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Take a polynomial ring in a single variable $x$ with coefficients in real numbers (or complex numbers, what is important is the uncountablity). Then all degree one polynomials $(x-alpha)$ are irreducible. Being degree 1 they cannot be products of lower degree polynomials!
This being a PID irreducible, prime are one and the same.






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    Take a polynomial ring in a single variable $x$ with coefficients in real numbers (or complex numbers, what is important is the uncountablity). Then all degree one polynomials $(x-alpha)$ are irreducible. Being degree 1 they cannot be products of lower degree polynomials!
    This being a PID irreducible, prime are one and the same.






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      Take a polynomial ring in a single variable $x$ with coefficients in real numbers (or complex numbers, what is important is the uncountablity). Then all degree one polynomials $(x-alpha)$ are irreducible. Being degree 1 they cannot be products of lower degree polynomials!
      This being a PID irreducible, prime are one and the same.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
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        down vote










        up vote
        5
        down vote









        Take a polynomial ring in a single variable $x$ with coefficients in real numbers (or complex numbers, what is important is the uncountablity). Then all degree one polynomials $(x-alpha)$ are irreducible. Being degree 1 they cannot be products of lower degree polynomials!
        This being a PID irreducible, prime are one and the same.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Take a polynomial ring in a single variable $x$ with coefficients in real numbers (or complex numbers, what is important is the uncountablity). Then all degree one polynomials $(x-alpha)$ are irreducible. Being degree 1 they cannot be products of lower degree polynomials!
        This being a PID irreducible, prime are one and the same.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 3 hours ago









        P Vanchinathan

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