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How was -gn- pronounced in classical Latin?
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According to what I have learned, -gn- was commonly pronounced /ŋn/, e.g. [ˈmaŋ.nʊs] (magnus). However, this excerpt from Encyclopædia Britannica had me wondering:
The sound represented by ng (pronounced as in English sing and represented in the IPA by /ŋ/), written ng or gn, may not have had phonemic status (in spite of the pair annus/agnus ‘year’/‘lamb,’ in which /ŋ/ may be regarded as a positional variant of /g/).
Could it be that -gn- was in fact pronounced merely /ŋ/, so that you would get annus–agnus as [ˈan.nʊs]–[ˈaŋ[ËÂ]ʊs]? ([ËÂ] added due to my uncertainty)? Were this the case, then I suppose one would be unable to tell the difference between e.g. *angus and agnus, so I am now left perplexed.
───
P. S.: I am unsure whether or not phonetic specificity should be added to the tags. (If so, velar and nasal should be added.) I thought it wise to inform of this.
classical-latin pronunciation vulgar-latin
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Canned Man
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up vote
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According to what I have learned, -gn- was commonly pronounced /ŋn/, e.g. [ˈmaŋ.nʊs] (magnus). However, this excerpt from Encyclopædia Britannica had me wondering:
The sound represented by ng (pronounced as in English sing and represented in the IPA by /ŋ/), written ng or gn, may not have had phonemic status (in spite of the pair annus/agnus ‘year’/‘lamb,’ in which /ŋ/ may be regarded as a positional variant of /g/).
Could it be that -gn- was in fact pronounced merely /ŋ/, so that you would get annus–agnus as [ˈan.nʊs]–[ˈaŋ[ËÂ]ʊs]? ([ËÂ] added due to my uncertainty)? Were this the case, then I suppose one would be unable to tell the difference between e.g. *angus and agnus, so I am now left perplexed.
───
P. S.: I am unsure whether or not phonetic specificity should be added to the tags. (If so, velar and nasal should be added.) I thought it wise to inform of this.
classical-latin pronunciation vulgar-latin
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
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Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Related: How do we know how gn was pronounced in Classical Latin?, Do we know how 'ng' was pronounced in classical Latin?
– sumelic
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
According to what I have learned, -gn- was commonly pronounced /ŋn/, e.g. [ˈmaŋ.nʊs] (magnus). However, this excerpt from Encyclopædia Britannica had me wondering:
The sound represented by ng (pronounced as in English sing and represented in the IPA by /ŋ/), written ng or gn, may not have had phonemic status (in spite of the pair annus/agnus ‘year’/‘lamb,’ in which /ŋ/ may be regarded as a positional variant of /g/).
Could it be that -gn- was in fact pronounced merely /ŋ/, so that you would get annus–agnus as [ˈan.nʊs]–[ˈaŋ[ËÂ]ʊs]? ([ËÂ] added due to my uncertainty)? Were this the case, then I suppose one would be unable to tell the difference between e.g. *angus and agnus, so I am now left perplexed.
───
P. S.: I am unsure whether or not phonetic specificity should be added to the tags. (If so, velar and nasal should be added.) I thought it wise to inform of this.
classical-latin pronunciation vulgar-latin
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
New contributor
Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
According to what I have learned, -gn- was commonly pronounced /ŋn/, e.g. [ˈmaŋ.nʊs] (magnus). However, this excerpt from Encyclopædia Britannica had me wondering:
The sound represented by ng (pronounced as in English sing and represented in the IPA by /ŋ/), written ng or gn, may not have had phonemic status (in spite of the pair annus/agnus ‘year’/‘lamb,’ in which /ŋ/ may be regarded as a positional variant of /g/).
Could it be that -gn- was in fact pronounced merely /ŋ/, so that you would get annus–agnus as [ˈan.nʊs]–[ˈaŋ[ËÂ]ʊs]? ([ËÂ] added due to my uncertainty)? Were this the case, then I suppose one would be unable to tell the difference between e.g. *angus and agnus, so I am now left perplexed.
───
P. S.: I am unsure whether or not phonetic specificity should be added to the tags. (If so, velar and nasal should be added.) I thought it wise to inform of this.
classical-latin pronunciation vulgar-latin
classical-latin pronunciation vulgar-latin
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
New contributor
Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
New contributor
Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
New contributor
Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
asked 2 hours ago
Canned Man
316
316
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Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
Canned Man is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
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Related: How do we know how gn was pronounced in Classical Latin?, Do we know how 'ng' was pronounced in classical Latin?
– sumelic
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
Related: How do we know how gn was pronounced in Classical Latin?, Do we know how 'ng' was pronounced in classical Latin?
– sumelic
2 hours ago
Related: How do we know how gn was pronounced in Classical Latin?, Do we know how 'ng' was pronounced in classical Latin?
– sumelic
2 hours ago
Related: How do we know how gn was pronounced in Classical Latin?, Do we know how 'ng' was pronounced in classical Latin?
– sumelic
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
I think the wording of the Encyclopædia Britannica article is unclear, leading to misunderstanding. I don't think they mean that Latin "gn" could represent [ŋ(ËÂ)] rather than [ŋn], but I'll admit the wording is confusing.
The point they're trying to make (I think) is that on the face of it, if [ŋ] can appear before a nasal consonant and [n], it looks like it should be regarded as a separate phoneme, but maybe in "ng", pronounced [ŋg], it can be analysed phonemically as /ng/, but in "gn", pronounced [ŋn], it can be analysed phonemically as /gn/.
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
I think the wording of the Encyclopædia Britannica article is unclear, leading to misunderstanding. I don't think they mean that Latin "gn" could represent [ŋ(ËÂ)] rather than [ŋn], but I'll admit the wording is confusing.
The point they're trying to make (I think) is that on the face of it, if [ŋ] can appear before a nasal consonant and [n], it looks like it should be regarded as a separate phoneme, but maybe in "ng", pronounced [ŋg], it can be analysed phonemically as /ng/, but in "gn", pronounced [ŋn], it can be analysed phonemically as /gn/.
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
I think the wording of the Encyclopædia Britannica article is unclear, leading to misunderstanding. I don't think they mean that Latin "gn" could represent [ŋ(ËÂ)] rather than [ŋn], but I'll admit the wording is confusing.
The point they're trying to make (I think) is that on the face of it, if [ŋ] can appear before a nasal consonant and [n], it looks like it should be regarded as a separate phoneme, but maybe in "ng", pronounced [ŋg], it can be analysed phonemically as /ng/, but in "gn", pronounced [ŋn], it can be analysed phonemically as /gn/.
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
I think the wording of the Encyclopædia Britannica article is unclear, leading to misunderstanding. I don't think they mean that Latin "gn" could represent [ŋ(ËÂ)] rather than [ŋn], but I'll admit the wording is confusing.
The point they're trying to make (I think) is that on the face of it, if [ŋ] can appear before a nasal consonant and [n], it looks like it should be regarded as a separate phoneme, but maybe in "ng", pronounced [ŋg], it can be analysed phonemically as /ng/, but in "gn", pronounced [ŋn], it can be analysed phonemically as /gn/.
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
I think the wording of the Encyclopædia Britannica article is unclear, leading to misunderstanding. I don't think they mean that Latin "gn" could represent [ŋ(ËÂ)] rather than [ŋn], but I'll admit the wording is confusing.
The point they're trying to make (I think) is that on the face of it, if [ŋ] can appear before a nasal consonant and [n], it looks like it should be regarded as a separate phoneme, but maybe in "ng", pronounced [ŋg], it can be analysed phonemically as /ng/, but in "gn", pronounced [ŋn], it can be analysed phonemically as /gn/.
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
edited 1 hour ago
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
answered 2 hours ago
varro
2,6831212
2,6831212
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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Related: How do we know how gn was pronounced in Classical Latin?, Do we know how 'ng' was pronounced in classical Latin?
– sumelic
2 hours ago