Does time dilation mean that faster than light travel is backwards time travel?

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Ok. So my question is, I've always heard it that Faster Than Light travel is supposedly backwards time travel.



However, the time dilation formula is
$$T=fracT_0sqrt1-v^2/c^2$$
And while it is true that speeds greater than $c$ turn the denominator negative, doesn't the whole thing get rendered a complex fraction, rather than negative or backwards time flow, due to the square root of a negative number being a complex one?



Wouldn't this then mean that faster than light travel does something weird, rather than backwards time travel? In other words, wouldn't what happens during faster than light travel be some sort travel in a complex plane and wouldn't that have radically different implications to backwards time travel, depending on the direction one took FTL?










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  • 3




    According to SR faster than light travel is impossible, so trying to draw reasonable conclusions from this equation is meaningless.
    – Aaron Stevens
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Tachyons are allowed in SR, and they do also have a proper time
    – Ð¡Ð¸Ð¼Ð¾Ð½ Тыран
    4 hours ago







  • 1




    @СимонТыран I'll delete my comment if tachyons are shown to exist.
    – Aaron Stevens
    1 hour ago










  • Imaginary time is spacelike (and vice versa), sort of. But see physics.stackexchange.com/questions/121380/… and the various links on that page.
    – PM 2Ring
    1 hour ago






  • 1




    @PM2Ring I see what you mean. I meant SR that we have experientially verified.
    – Aaron Stevens
    58 mins ago














up vote
4
down vote

favorite












Ok. So my question is, I've always heard it that Faster Than Light travel is supposedly backwards time travel.



However, the time dilation formula is
$$T=fracT_0sqrt1-v^2/c^2$$
And while it is true that speeds greater than $c$ turn the denominator negative, doesn't the whole thing get rendered a complex fraction, rather than negative or backwards time flow, due to the square root of a negative number being a complex one?



Wouldn't this then mean that faster than light travel does something weird, rather than backwards time travel? In other words, wouldn't what happens during faster than light travel be some sort travel in a complex plane and wouldn't that have radically different implications to backwards time travel, depending on the direction one took FTL?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Guthrie Douglas Prentice is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.















  • 3




    According to SR faster than light travel is impossible, so trying to draw reasonable conclusions from this equation is meaningless.
    – Aaron Stevens
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Tachyons are allowed in SR, and they do also have a proper time
    – Ð¡Ð¸Ð¼Ð¾Ð½ Тыран
    4 hours ago







  • 1




    @СимонТыран I'll delete my comment if tachyons are shown to exist.
    – Aaron Stevens
    1 hour ago










  • Imaginary time is spacelike (and vice versa), sort of. But see physics.stackexchange.com/questions/121380/… and the various links on that page.
    – PM 2Ring
    1 hour ago






  • 1




    @PM2Ring I see what you mean. I meant SR that we have experientially verified.
    – Aaron Stevens
    58 mins ago












up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











Ok. So my question is, I've always heard it that Faster Than Light travel is supposedly backwards time travel.



However, the time dilation formula is
$$T=fracT_0sqrt1-v^2/c^2$$
And while it is true that speeds greater than $c$ turn the denominator negative, doesn't the whole thing get rendered a complex fraction, rather than negative or backwards time flow, due to the square root of a negative number being a complex one?



Wouldn't this then mean that faster than light travel does something weird, rather than backwards time travel? In other words, wouldn't what happens during faster than light travel be some sort travel in a complex plane and wouldn't that have radically different implications to backwards time travel, depending on the direction one took FTL?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Guthrie Douglas Prentice is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Ok. So my question is, I've always heard it that Faster Than Light travel is supposedly backwards time travel.



However, the time dilation formula is
$$T=fracT_0sqrt1-v^2/c^2$$
And while it is true that speeds greater than $c$ turn the denominator negative, doesn't the whole thing get rendered a complex fraction, rather than negative or backwards time flow, due to the square root of a negative number being a complex one?



Wouldn't this then mean that faster than light travel does something weird, rather than backwards time travel? In other words, wouldn't what happens during faster than light travel be some sort travel in a complex plane and wouldn't that have radically different implications to backwards time travel, depending on the direction one took FTL?







special-relativity time-dilation faster-than-light time-travel






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edited 4 hours ago









Qmechanic♦

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  • 3




    According to SR faster than light travel is impossible, so trying to draw reasonable conclusions from this equation is meaningless.
    – Aaron Stevens
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Tachyons are allowed in SR, and they do also have a proper time
    – Ð¡Ð¸Ð¼Ð¾Ð½ Тыран
    4 hours ago







  • 1




    @СимонТыран I'll delete my comment if tachyons are shown to exist.
    – Aaron Stevens
    1 hour ago










  • Imaginary time is spacelike (and vice versa), sort of. But see physics.stackexchange.com/questions/121380/… and the various links on that page.
    – PM 2Ring
    1 hour ago






  • 1




    @PM2Ring I see what you mean. I meant SR that we have experientially verified.
    – Aaron Stevens
    58 mins ago












  • 3




    According to SR faster than light travel is impossible, so trying to draw reasonable conclusions from this equation is meaningless.
    – Aaron Stevens
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Tachyons are allowed in SR, and they do also have a proper time
    – Ð¡Ð¸Ð¼Ð¾Ð½ Тыран
    4 hours ago







  • 1




    @СимонТыран I'll delete my comment if tachyons are shown to exist.
    – Aaron Stevens
    1 hour ago










  • Imaginary time is spacelike (and vice versa), sort of. But see physics.stackexchange.com/questions/121380/… and the various links on that page.
    – PM 2Ring
    1 hour ago






  • 1




    @PM2Ring I see what you mean. I meant SR that we have experientially verified.
    – Aaron Stevens
    58 mins ago







3




3




According to SR faster than light travel is impossible, so trying to draw reasonable conclusions from this equation is meaningless.
– Aaron Stevens
4 hours ago




According to SR faster than light travel is impossible, so trying to draw reasonable conclusions from this equation is meaningless.
– Aaron Stevens
4 hours ago




1




1




Tachyons are allowed in SR, and they do also have a proper time
– Ð¡Ð¸Ð¼Ð¾Ð½ Тыран
4 hours ago





Tachyons are allowed in SR, and they do also have a proper time
– Ð¡Ð¸Ð¼Ð¾Ð½ Тыран
4 hours ago





1




1




@СимонТыран I'll delete my comment if tachyons are shown to exist.
– Aaron Stevens
1 hour ago




@СимонТыран I'll delete my comment if tachyons are shown to exist.
– Aaron Stevens
1 hour ago












Imaginary time is spacelike (and vice versa), sort of. But see physics.stackexchange.com/questions/121380/… and the various links on that page.
– PM 2Ring
1 hour ago




Imaginary time is spacelike (and vice versa), sort of. But see physics.stackexchange.com/questions/121380/… and the various links on that page.
– PM 2Ring
1 hour ago




1




1




@PM2Ring I see what you mean. I meant SR that we have experientially verified.
– Aaron Stevens
58 mins ago




@PM2Ring I see what you mean. I meant SR that we have experientially verified.
– Aaron Stevens
58 mins ago










3 Answers
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2
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I don't know what you mean by "some sort travel in a complex plane". Faster than light travel is by definition some object that changes position from $x_0$ to $x_1$ in such a way that $dfracx_1-x_0Delta t>c$, where $Delta t$ is the elapsed time. There is no time travel involved when this happens, but causality will take a blow if events at $x_1$ depend on events at $x_0$.






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    up vote
    2
    down vote













    When using formulas in physics it is important to keep in mind the assumptions that the formula is based on. In this case $T_0$ is the time on a clock in its rest frame. It is doubtful that tachyons exist, but if they do then they are not at rest in any inertial frame, so the time dilation formula simply does not apply.



    However, the Lorentz transform does apply. So (in units where c=1) if we had a tachyon which moved at 2 c in our frame then it would have a worldline like $(t,x)=(lambda,2lambda)$ where $lambda$ is an affine parameter and the y and z coordinates are suppressed. Now, if we do a Lorentz transform to a frame moving at 0.6 c relative to our frame then the worldline would be $(t’,x’)=(-0.25lambda, 1.75lambda)$.



    Note that the worldline in the primed frame has the affine parameter increasing as time decreases whereas the affine parameter increases as time increases in our frame. In that sense it is traveling backwards in time in one frame or in the other.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      In fact, faster than light travel is theoretically possible, and one argument for that goes like this:



      The important thing is for T to be a real number, and here we have three cases for that to happen:



      1. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are real numbers, in this case we must have v


      2. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are pure imaginary and in this case v>c. Don't be discouraged by the fact that T0 is imaginary because these particles cannot be at rest, in fact they always move faster than the speed of light. Such hypothetical particles are called tachyons.


      3. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are zero. In this case v=c. And such particles are bound to always move in the speed of light. Such particles are called massless particles.






      share|cite|improve this answer










      New contributor




      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.













      • 1




        You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
        – D. Halsey
        1 hour ago






      • 1




        I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
        – Aaron Stevens
        1 hour ago











      • @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
        – Arthur
        1 hour ago










      • @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
        – Arthur
        59 mins ago










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      3 Answers
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      active

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      3 Answers
      3






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      up vote
      2
      down vote













      I don't know what you mean by "some sort travel in a complex plane". Faster than light travel is by definition some object that changes position from $x_0$ to $x_1$ in such a way that $dfracx_1-x_0Delta t>c$, where $Delta t$ is the elapsed time. There is no time travel involved when this happens, but causality will take a blow if events at $x_1$ depend on events at $x_0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        I don't know what you mean by "some sort travel in a complex plane". Faster than light travel is by definition some object that changes position from $x_0$ to $x_1$ in such a way that $dfracx_1-x_0Delta t>c$, where $Delta t$ is the elapsed time. There is no time travel involved when this happens, but causality will take a blow if events at $x_1$ depend on events at $x_0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          I don't know what you mean by "some sort travel in a complex plane". Faster than light travel is by definition some object that changes position from $x_0$ to $x_1$ in such a way that $dfracx_1-x_0Delta t>c$, where $Delta t$ is the elapsed time. There is no time travel involved when this happens, but causality will take a blow if events at $x_1$ depend on events at $x_0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          I don't know what you mean by "some sort travel in a complex plane". Faster than light travel is by definition some object that changes position from $x_0$ to $x_1$ in such a way that $dfracx_1-x_0Delta t>c$, where $Delta t$ is the elapsed time. There is no time travel involved when this happens, but causality will take a blow if events at $x_1$ depend on events at $x_0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 4 hours ago









          Cuspy Code

          29115




          29115




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              When using formulas in physics it is important to keep in mind the assumptions that the formula is based on. In this case $T_0$ is the time on a clock in its rest frame. It is doubtful that tachyons exist, but if they do then they are not at rest in any inertial frame, so the time dilation formula simply does not apply.



              However, the Lorentz transform does apply. So (in units where c=1) if we had a tachyon which moved at 2 c in our frame then it would have a worldline like $(t,x)=(lambda,2lambda)$ where $lambda$ is an affine parameter and the y and z coordinates are suppressed. Now, if we do a Lorentz transform to a frame moving at 0.6 c relative to our frame then the worldline would be $(t’,x’)=(-0.25lambda, 1.75lambda)$.



              Note that the worldline in the primed frame has the affine parameter increasing as time decreases whereas the affine parameter increases as time increases in our frame. In that sense it is traveling backwards in time in one frame or in the other.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                When using formulas in physics it is important to keep in mind the assumptions that the formula is based on. In this case $T_0$ is the time on a clock in its rest frame. It is doubtful that tachyons exist, but if they do then they are not at rest in any inertial frame, so the time dilation formula simply does not apply.



                However, the Lorentz transform does apply. So (in units where c=1) if we had a tachyon which moved at 2 c in our frame then it would have a worldline like $(t,x)=(lambda,2lambda)$ where $lambda$ is an affine parameter and the y and z coordinates are suppressed. Now, if we do a Lorentz transform to a frame moving at 0.6 c relative to our frame then the worldline would be $(t’,x’)=(-0.25lambda, 1.75lambda)$.



                Note that the worldline in the primed frame has the affine parameter increasing as time decreases whereas the affine parameter increases as time increases in our frame. In that sense it is traveling backwards in time in one frame or in the other.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  When using formulas in physics it is important to keep in mind the assumptions that the formula is based on. In this case $T_0$ is the time on a clock in its rest frame. It is doubtful that tachyons exist, but if they do then they are not at rest in any inertial frame, so the time dilation formula simply does not apply.



                  However, the Lorentz transform does apply. So (in units where c=1) if we had a tachyon which moved at 2 c in our frame then it would have a worldline like $(t,x)=(lambda,2lambda)$ where $lambda$ is an affine parameter and the y and z coordinates are suppressed. Now, if we do a Lorentz transform to a frame moving at 0.6 c relative to our frame then the worldline would be $(t’,x’)=(-0.25lambda, 1.75lambda)$.



                  Note that the worldline in the primed frame has the affine parameter increasing as time decreases whereas the affine parameter increases as time increases in our frame. In that sense it is traveling backwards in time in one frame or in the other.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  When using formulas in physics it is important to keep in mind the assumptions that the formula is based on. In this case $T_0$ is the time on a clock in its rest frame. It is doubtful that tachyons exist, but if they do then they are not at rest in any inertial frame, so the time dilation formula simply does not apply.



                  However, the Lorentz transform does apply. So (in units where c=1) if we had a tachyon which moved at 2 c in our frame then it would have a worldline like $(t,x)=(lambda,2lambda)$ where $lambda$ is an affine parameter and the y and z coordinates are suppressed. Now, if we do a Lorentz transform to a frame moving at 0.6 c relative to our frame then the worldline would be $(t’,x’)=(-0.25lambda, 1.75lambda)$.



                  Note that the worldline in the primed frame has the affine parameter increasing as time decreases whereas the affine parameter increases as time increases in our frame. In that sense it is traveling backwards in time in one frame or in the other.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 16 mins ago









                  Dale

                  2,238415




                  2,238415




















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      In fact, faster than light travel is theoretically possible, and one argument for that goes like this:



                      The important thing is for T to be a real number, and here we have three cases for that to happen:



                      1. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are real numbers, in this case we must have v


                      2. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are pure imaginary and in this case v>c. Don't be discouraged by the fact that T0 is imaginary because these particles cannot be at rest, in fact they always move faster than the speed of light. Such hypothetical particles are called tachyons.


                      3. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are zero. In this case v=c. And such particles are bound to always move in the speed of light. Such particles are called massless particles.






                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      New contributor




                      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                      Check out our Code of Conduct.













                      • 1




                        You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
                        – D. Halsey
                        1 hour ago






                      • 1




                        I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
                        – Aaron Stevens
                        1 hour ago











                      • @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
                        – Arthur
                        1 hour ago










                      • @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
                        – Arthur
                        59 mins ago














                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      In fact, faster than light travel is theoretically possible, and one argument for that goes like this:



                      The important thing is for T to be a real number, and here we have three cases for that to happen:



                      1. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are real numbers, in this case we must have v


                      2. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are pure imaginary and in this case v>c. Don't be discouraged by the fact that T0 is imaginary because these particles cannot be at rest, in fact they always move faster than the speed of light. Such hypothetical particles are called tachyons.


                      3. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are zero. In this case v=c. And such particles are bound to always move in the speed of light. Such particles are called massless particles.






                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      New contributor




                      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                      Check out our Code of Conduct.













                      • 1




                        You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
                        – D. Halsey
                        1 hour ago






                      • 1




                        I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
                        – Aaron Stevens
                        1 hour ago











                      • @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
                        – Arthur
                        1 hour ago










                      • @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
                        – Arthur
                        59 mins ago












                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote









                      In fact, faster than light travel is theoretically possible, and one argument for that goes like this:



                      The important thing is for T to be a real number, and here we have three cases for that to happen:



                      1. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are real numbers, in this case we must have v


                      2. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are pure imaginary and in this case v>c. Don't be discouraged by the fact that T0 is imaginary because these particles cannot be at rest, in fact they always move faster than the speed of light. Such hypothetical particles are called tachyons.


                      3. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are zero. In this case v=c. And such particles are bound to always move in the speed of light. Such particles are called massless particles.






                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      New contributor




                      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                      Check out our Code of Conduct.









                      In fact, faster than light travel is theoretically possible, and one argument for that goes like this:



                      The important thing is for T to be a real number, and here we have three cases for that to happen:



                      1. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are real numbers, in this case we must have v


                      2. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are pure imaginary and in this case v>c. Don't be discouraged by the fact that T0 is imaginary because these particles cannot be at rest, in fact they always move faster than the speed of light. Such hypothetical particles are called tachyons.


                      3. Both T0 and sqr(1-v^2/c^2) are zero. In this case v=c. And such particles are bound to always move in the speed of light. Such particles are called massless particles.







                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      New contributor




                      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                      Check out our Code of Conduct.









                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited 1 hour ago





















                      New contributor




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                      answered 1 hour ago









                      Arthur

                      175




                      175




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                      New contributor





                      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                      Check out our Code of Conduct.






                      Arthur is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                      Check out our Code of Conduct.







                      • 1




                        You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
                        – D. Halsey
                        1 hour ago






                      • 1




                        I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
                        – Aaron Stevens
                        1 hour ago











                      • @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
                        – Arthur
                        1 hour ago










                      • @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
                        – Arthur
                        59 mins ago












                      • 1




                        You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
                        – D. Halsey
                        1 hour ago






                      • 1




                        I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
                        – Aaron Stevens
                        1 hour ago











                      • @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
                        – Arthur
                        1 hour ago










                      • @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
                        – Arthur
                        59 mins ago







                      1




                      1




                      You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
                      – D. Halsey
                      1 hour ago




                      You didn't address the issue of traveling backwards in time.
                      – D. Halsey
                      1 hour ago




                      1




                      1




                      I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
                      – Aaron Stevens
                      1 hour ago





                      I don't see how defining some particle to move faster than the speed of light means it is theoretically possible. Unless you have a very very lose definition of theoretically possible of "if I make a theory about it, then it must be theoretically possible." Usually theoretically possible means that we could achieve it, but there is some obstacle we currently can't overcome. Tachyons haven't been shown to exist, so there really isn't any argument to be had that it could be possible to travel faster than light.
                      – Aaron Stevens
                      1 hour ago













                      @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
                      – Arthur
                      1 hour ago




                      @AaronStevens it seems that we have different understandings of "theoretically possible". I use it to mean that it is not ruled out by the current laws of physics. Tachyons are of this type, although their existence will create real problems for causality.
                      – Arthur
                      1 hour ago












                      @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
                      – Arthur
                      59 mins ago




                      @D.Halsey if tachyons exist, then they travel with space-like intervals in spacetime, which makes them able to travel both forward and backwards in time.
                      – Arthur
                      59 mins ago










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