Does a projective variety have only finitely many associated Hilbert polynomials?

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Let $X$ be a projective variety over $mathbbC$. If $L$ is an ample line bundle, then $h_L$ denotes the Hilbert polynomial.





Is it true that, if $L$ and $L'$ are ample line bundles which are equal in the Neron-Severi group, then $h_L = h_L'$?



Does this imply, together with finite generation of Neron-Severi groups, that the set of polynomials $ L $ ample line bundle on $X $ is finite?





Can anyone recommend a text (book or article) in which these things are explained (to some extent)?










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    As Sasha rightly points out, the answer to the second question is negative because you can take linear combinations of line bundles. My answer to this question contains a slightly modified statement you can deduce from finite generation of the Néron–Severi group.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    1 hour ago










  • @R.vanDobbendeBruyn Do I understand correctly that your answer says that, given a choice of generators, one obtains a "universal" polynomial $p$ (in the sense that any other Hilbert polynomial is a very specific type of specialization of this one)?
    – Paolo Avi
    45 mins ago






  • 1




    Yes, that is the conclusion. (It's universal in a weak sense, because it depends on some choices.) I also worked out one non-trivial example, to show that it's not so easy to get a complete parametrisation of all Hilbert polynomials obtained this way.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    43 mins ago















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $X$ be a projective variety over $mathbbC$. If $L$ is an ample line bundle, then $h_L$ denotes the Hilbert polynomial.





Is it true that, if $L$ and $L'$ are ample line bundles which are equal in the Neron-Severi group, then $h_L = h_L'$?



Does this imply, together with finite generation of Neron-Severi groups, that the set of polynomials $ L $ ample line bundle on $X $ is finite?





Can anyone recommend a text (book or article) in which these things are explained (to some extent)?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.















  • 1




    As Sasha rightly points out, the answer to the second question is negative because you can take linear combinations of line bundles. My answer to this question contains a slightly modified statement you can deduce from finite generation of the Néron–Severi group.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    1 hour ago










  • @R.vanDobbendeBruyn Do I understand correctly that your answer says that, given a choice of generators, one obtains a "universal" polynomial $p$ (in the sense that any other Hilbert polynomial is a very specific type of specialization of this one)?
    – Paolo Avi
    45 mins ago






  • 1




    Yes, that is the conclusion. (It's universal in a weak sense, because it depends on some choices.) I also worked out one non-trivial example, to show that it's not so easy to get a complete parametrisation of all Hilbert polynomials obtained this way.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    43 mins ago













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $X$ be a projective variety over $mathbbC$. If $L$ is an ample line bundle, then $h_L$ denotes the Hilbert polynomial.





Is it true that, if $L$ and $L'$ are ample line bundles which are equal in the Neron-Severi group, then $h_L = h_L'$?



Does this imply, together with finite generation of Neron-Severi groups, that the set of polynomials $ L $ ample line bundle on $X $ is finite?





Can anyone recommend a text (book or article) in which these things are explained (to some extent)?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Let $X$ be a projective variety over $mathbbC$. If $L$ is an ample line bundle, then $h_L$ denotes the Hilbert polynomial.





Is it true that, if $L$ and $L'$ are ample line bundles which are equal in the Neron-Severi group, then $h_L = h_L'$?



Does this imply, together with finite generation of Neron-Severi groups, that the set of polynomials $ L $ ample line bundle on $X $ is finite?





Can anyone recommend a text (book or article) in which these things are explained (to some extent)?







ag.algebraic-geometry complex-geometry ample-bundles






share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question






New contributor




Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 1 hour ago









Paolo Avi

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New contributor




Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Paolo Avi is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







  • 1




    As Sasha rightly points out, the answer to the second question is negative because you can take linear combinations of line bundles. My answer to this question contains a slightly modified statement you can deduce from finite generation of the Néron–Severi group.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    1 hour ago










  • @R.vanDobbendeBruyn Do I understand correctly that your answer says that, given a choice of generators, one obtains a "universal" polynomial $p$ (in the sense that any other Hilbert polynomial is a very specific type of specialization of this one)?
    – Paolo Avi
    45 mins ago






  • 1




    Yes, that is the conclusion. (It's universal in a weak sense, because it depends on some choices.) I also worked out one non-trivial example, to show that it's not so easy to get a complete parametrisation of all Hilbert polynomials obtained this way.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    43 mins ago













  • 1




    As Sasha rightly points out, the answer to the second question is negative because you can take linear combinations of line bundles. My answer to this question contains a slightly modified statement you can deduce from finite generation of the Néron–Severi group.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    1 hour ago










  • @R.vanDobbendeBruyn Do I understand correctly that your answer says that, given a choice of generators, one obtains a "universal" polynomial $p$ (in the sense that any other Hilbert polynomial is a very specific type of specialization of this one)?
    – Paolo Avi
    45 mins ago






  • 1




    Yes, that is the conclusion. (It's universal in a weak sense, because it depends on some choices.) I also worked out one non-trivial example, to show that it's not so easy to get a complete parametrisation of all Hilbert polynomials obtained this way.
    – R. van Dobben de Bruyn
    43 mins ago








1




1




As Sasha rightly points out, the answer to the second question is negative because you can take linear combinations of line bundles. My answer to this question contains a slightly modified statement you can deduce from finite generation of the Néron–Severi group.
– R. van Dobben de Bruyn
1 hour ago




As Sasha rightly points out, the answer to the second question is negative because you can take linear combinations of line bundles. My answer to this question contains a slightly modified statement you can deduce from finite generation of the Néron–Severi group.
– R. van Dobben de Bruyn
1 hour ago












@R.vanDobbendeBruyn Do I understand correctly that your answer says that, given a choice of generators, one obtains a "universal" polynomial $p$ (in the sense that any other Hilbert polynomial is a very specific type of specialization of this one)?
– Paolo Avi
45 mins ago




@R.vanDobbendeBruyn Do I understand correctly that your answer says that, given a choice of generators, one obtains a "universal" polynomial $p$ (in the sense that any other Hilbert polynomial is a very specific type of specialization of this one)?
– Paolo Avi
45 mins ago




1




1




Yes, that is the conclusion. (It's universal in a weak sense, because it depends on some choices.) I also worked out one non-trivial example, to show that it's not so easy to get a complete parametrisation of all Hilbert polynomials obtained this way.
– R. van Dobben de Bruyn
43 mins ago





Yes, that is the conclusion. (It's universal in a weak sense, because it depends on some choices.) I also worked out one non-trivial example, to show that it's not so easy to get a complete parametrisation of all Hilbert polynomials obtained this way.
– R. van Dobben de Bruyn
43 mins ago











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Yes for the first question, by Riemann--Roch.



No for the second --- even in the simplest case of a projective line, the polynomial $td + 1$ is the Hilbert polynomial (with respect to $L = O(d)$).






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  • 2




    You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
    – abx
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
    – Paolo Avi
    46 mins ago










  • @abx: Of course.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago










  • @Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
4
down vote



accepted










Yes for the first question, by Riemann--Roch.



No for the second --- even in the simplest case of a projective line, the polynomial $td + 1$ is the Hilbert polynomial (with respect to $L = O(d)$).






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
    – abx
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
    – Paolo Avi
    46 mins ago










  • @abx: Of course.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago










  • @Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago














up vote
4
down vote



accepted










Yes for the first question, by Riemann--Roch.



No for the second --- even in the simplest case of a projective line, the polynomial $td + 1$ is the Hilbert polynomial (with respect to $L = O(d)$).






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
    – abx
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
    – Paolo Avi
    46 mins ago










  • @abx: Of course.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago










  • @Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago












up vote
4
down vote



accepted







up vote
4
down vote



accepted






Yes for the first question, by Riemann--Roch.



No for the second --- even in the simplest case of a projective line, the polynomial $td + 1$ is the Hilbert polynomial (with respect to $L = O(d)$).






share|cite|improve this answer














Yes for the first question, by Riemann--Roch.



No for the second --- even in the simplest case of a projective line, the polynomial $td + 1$ is the Hilbert polynomial (with respect to $L = O(d)$).







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 41 mins ago

























answered 1 hour ago









Sasha

19.3k22550




19.3k22550







  • 2




    You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
    – abx
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
    – Paolo Avi
    46 mins ago










  • @abx: Of course.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago










  • @Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago












  • 2




    You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
    – abx
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
    – Paolo Avi
    46 mins ago










  • @abx: Of course.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago










  • @Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
    – Sasha
    40 mins ago







2




2




You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
– abx
1 hour ago




You don't really need Riemann-Roch, only that $chi$ is constant in an algebraic family.
– abx
1 hour ago




2




2




Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
– Paolo Avi
46 mins ago




Should that be $td +1$? I thought the degree of the Hilbert polynomial always equals the dimension of the variety.
– Paolo Avi
46 mins ago












@abx: Of course.
– Sasha
40 mins ago




@abx: Of course.
– Sasha
40 mins ago












@Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
– Sasha
40 mins ago




@Paolo Avi: Right, I corrected this.
– Sasha
40 mins ago










Paolo Avi is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









 

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