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Functional analysis of chorale 'Wie wunderbarlich ist doch diese Strafe' BWV 244/46
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I did some analysis of the chorale 'Wie wunderbarlich ist doch diese Strafe' (from Matthew Passion BWV 244 no.46), see below. But how would I analyse the first chord in measure 2? Obviously, it's an E major chord (1st inversion), but what is its function? You could say it's an altered subdominant, IV#3, but I think such things are very rare in Bach's music. Could be a secondary dominant, but the following chord is F#65, of which E major is neither the V nor the VII. So, any help?
theory analysis baroque-period
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Minethlos
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I did some analysis of the chorale 'Wie wunderbarlich ist doch diese Strafe' (from Matthew Passion BWV 244 no.46), see below. But how would I analyse the first chord in measure 2? Obviously, it's an E major chord (1st inversion), but what is its function? You could say it's an altered subdominant, IV#3, but I think such things are very rare in Bach's music. Could be a secondary dominant, but the following chord is F#65, of which E major is neither the V nor the VII. So, any help?
theory analysis baroque-period
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
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Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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up vote
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up vote
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down vote
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I did some analysis of the chorale 'Wie wunderbarlich ist doch diese Strafe' (from Matthew Passion BWV 244 no.46), see below. But how would I analyse the first chord in measure 2? Obviously, it's an E major chord (1st inversion), but what is its function? You could say it's an altered subdominant, IV#3, but I think such things are very rare in Bach's music. Could be a secondary dominant, but the following chord is F#65, of which E major is neither the V nor the VII. So, any help?
theory analysis baroque-period
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
1564
New contributor
Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I did some analysis of the chorale 'Wie wunderbarlich ist doch diese Strafe' (from Matthew Passion BWV 244 no.46), see below. But how would I analyse the first chord in measure 2? Obviously, it's an E major chord (1st inversion), but what is its function? You could say it's an altered subdominant, IV#3, but I think such things are very rare in Bach's music. Could be a secondary dominant, but the following chord is F#65, of which E major is neither the V nor the VII. So, any help?
theory analysis baroque-period
theory analysis baroque-period
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
1564
New contributor
Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
1564
New contributor
Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
1564
New contributor
Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
1564
asked 2 hours ago
Minethlos
1564
1564
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Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Minethlos is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Nice example! I'll have to remember this one.
The G♯ here is actually a product of voice leading and only a byproduct of functional harmony. Since beat 2 of m. 2 is a V65 chord that necessitates the A♯ leading tone, Bach has chosen to raise the downbeat of m. 2 from a G to a G♯ to prevent the augmented second from G♮ to A♯.
To put it more simply, Bach is just using the melodic minor scale in the bass, and that raised sixth scale degree creates a major IV6 chord.
Also interesting is that this IV6 chord comes after the previous V chord. This is a deceptive progression that's a bit different than the more common V–vi progression. It also seems to break the modern rule against moving from V to IV, but this V–IV6 deceptive motion was very common in the Baroque. Handel did it all the time, too.
One final comment: this chorale may be best understood historically as being in E.
Bach often used modal melodies to write these chorales. Dorian was especially common, and this is why we often see (for instance) chorales written in G with only a one-flat key signature. It's possible this chorale is really in E Dorian, since that "extra" C♯ in the key signature would be the characteristic Dorian scale degree. This would also mean the chorale begins with V65–i, which is maybe a bit more common an opening than V65/iv–iv.
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
Nice example! I'll have to remember this one.
The G♯ here is actually a product of voice leading and only a byproduct of functional harmony. Since beat 2 of m. 2 is a V65 chord that necessitates the A♯ leading tone, Bach has chosen to raise the downbeat of m. 2 from a G to a G♯ to prevent the augmented second from G♮ to A♯.
To put it more simply, Bach is just using the melodic minor scale in the bass, and that raised sixth scale degree creates a major IV6 chord.
Also interesting is that this IV6 chord comes after the previous V chord. This is a deceptive progression that's a bit different than the more common V–vi progression. It also seems to break the modern rule against moving from V to IV, but this V–IV6 deceptive motion was very common in the Baroque. Handel did it all the time, too.
One final comment: this chorale may be best understood historically as being in E.
Bach often used modal melodies to write these chorales. Dorian was especially common, and this is why we often see (for instance) chorales written in G with only a one-flat key signature. It's possible this chorale is really in E Dorian, since that "extra" C♯ in the key signature would be the characteristic Dorian scale degree. This would also mean the chorale begins with V65–i, which is maybe a bit more common an opening than V65/iv–iv.
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Nice example! I'll have to remember this one.
The G♯ here is actually a product of voice leading and only a byproduct of functional harmony. Since beat 2 of m. 2 is a V65 chord that necessitates the A♯ leading tone, Bach has chosen to raise the downbeat of m. 2 from a G to a G♯ to prevent the augmented second from G♮ to A♯.
To put it more simply, Bach is just using the melodic minor scale in the bass, and that raised sixth scale degree creates a major IV6 chord.
Also interesting is that this IV6 chord comes after the previous V chord. This is a deceptive progression that's a bit different than the more common V–vi progression. It also seems to break the modern rule against moving from V to IV, but this V–IV6 deceptive motion was very common in the Baroque. Handel did it all the time, too.
One final comment: this chorale may be best understood historically as being in E.
Bach often used modal melodies to write these chorales. Dorian was especially common, and this is why we often see (for instance) chorales written in G with only a one-flat key signature. It's possible this chorale is really in E Dorian, since that "extra" C♯ in the key signature would be the characteristic Dorian scale degree. This would also mean the chorale begins with V65–i, which is maybe a bit more common an opening than V65/iv–iv.
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Nice example! I'll have to remember this one.
The G♯ here is actually a product of voice leading and only a byproduct of functional harmony. Since beat 2 of m. 2 is a V65 chord that necessitates the A♯ leading tone, Bach has chosen to raise the downbeat of m. 2 from a G to a G♯ to prevent the augmented second from G♮ to A♯.
To put it more simply, Bach is just using the melodic minor scale in the bass, and that raised sixth scale degree creates a major IV6 chord.
Also interesting is that this IV6 chord comes after the previous V chord. This is a deceptive progression that's a bit different than the more common V–vi progression. It also seems to break the modern rule against moving from V to IV, but this V–IV6 deceptive motion was very common in the Baroque. Handel did it all the time, too.
One final comment: this chorale may be best understood historically as being in E.
Bach often used modal melodies to write these chorales. Dorian was especially common, and this is why we often see (for instance) chorales written in G with only a one-flat key signature. It's possible this chorale is really in E Dorian, since that "extra" C♯ in the key signature would be the characteristic Dorian scale degree. This would also mean the chorale begins with V65–i, which is maybe a bit more common an opening than V65/iv–iv.
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
Nice example! I'll have to remember this one.
The G♯ here is actually a product of voice leading and only a byproduct of functional harmony. Since beat 2 of m. 2 is a V65 chord that necessitates the A♯ leading tone, Bach has chosen to raise the downbeat of m. 2 from a G to a G♯ to prevent the augmented second from G♮ to A♯.
To put it more simply, Bach is just using the melodic minor scale in the bass, and that raised sixth scale degree creates a major IV6 chord.
Also interesting is that this IV6 chord comes after the previous V chord. This is a deceptive progression that's a bit different than the more common V–vi progression. It also seems to break the modern rule against moving from V to IV, but this V–IV6 deceptive motion was very common in the Baroque. Handel did it all the time, too.
One final comment: this chorale may be best understood historically as being in E.
Bach often used modal melodies to write these chorales. Dorian was especially common, and this is why we often see (for instance) chorales written in G with only a one-flat key signature. It's possible this chorale is really in E Dorian, since that "extra" C♯ in the key signature would be the characteristic Dorian scale degree. This would also mean the chorale begins with V65–i, which is maybe a bit more common an opening than V65/iv–iv.
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
edited 1 hour ago
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
answered 1 hour ago
Richard
31.1k667132
31.1k667132
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