Why stochastic dominance is “stochastic”?

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I think the CDF is pretty much fixed, so the FOSD (first order stochastic dominance) is pretty much non-stochastic. Why does it have a "stochastic" in its name?










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    I think the CDF is pretty much fixed, so the FOSD (first order stochastic dominance) is pretty much non-stochastic. Why does it have a "stochastic" in its name?










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      I think the CDF is pretty much fixed, so the FOSD (first order stochastic dominance) is pretty much non-stochastic. Why does it have a "stochastic" in its name?










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      I think the CDF is pretty much fixed, so the FOSD (first order stochastic dominance) is pretty much non-stochastic. Why does it have a "stochastic" in its name?







      financial-economics decision-theory portfolio-theory






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      asked 4 hours ago









      High GPA

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          In the below figure, CDF $F(cdot)$ is first-order stochastically dominated by $G(cdot)$. But $X_1$ and $X_2$ fall within the support of both distributions. So it would be possible to draw $X_1$ from $F$ and $X_2$ from $G$, or to draw $X_2$ from $F$ and $X_1$ from $G$.



          More generally, if $X_G$ is a draw from $G$ and $X_F$ is a draw from $F$ then $X_F-X_G$ will sometimes be positive and sometimes negative. In this sense, the dominance is only stochastic: $G$ produces larger draws than $F$ on average, but not all of the time.



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          • Great explanation!
            – High GPA
            2 hours ago










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          accepted










          In the below figure, CDF $F(cdot)$ is first-order stochastically dominated by $G(cdot)$. But $X_1$ and $X_2$ fall within the support of both distributions. So it would be possible to draw $X_1$ from $F$ and $X_2$ from $G$, or to draw $X_2$ from $F$ and $X_1$ from $G$.



          More generally, if $X_G$ is a draw from $G$ and $X_F$ is a draw from $F$ then $X_F-X_G$ will sometimes be positive and sometimes negative. In this sense, the dominance is only stochastic: $G$ produces larger draws than $F$ on average, but not all of the time.



          enter image description here






          share|improve this answer




















          • Great explanation!
            – High GPA
            2 hours ago














          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          In the below figure, CDF $F(cdot)$ is first-order stochastically dominated by $G(cdot)$. But $X_1$ and $X_2$ fall within the support of both distributions. So it would be possible to draw $X_1$ from $F$ and $X_2$ from $G$, or to draw $X_2$ from $F$ and $X_1$ from $G$.



          More generally, if $X_G$ is a draw from $G$ and $X_F$ is a draw from $F$ then $X_F-X_G$ will sometimes be positive and sometimes negative. In this sense, the dominance is only stochastic: $G$ produces larger draws than $F$ on average, but not all of the time.



          enter image description here






          share|improve this answer




















          • Great explanation!
            – High GPA
            2 hours ago












          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          In the below figure, CDF $F(cdot)$ is first-order stochastically dominated by $G(cdot)$. But $X_1$ and $X_2$ fall within the support of both distributions. So it would be possible to draw $X_1$ from $F$ and $X_2$ from $G$, or to draw $X_2$ from $F$ and $X_1$ from $G$.



          More generally, if $X_G$ is a draw from $G$ and $X_F$ is a draw from $F$ then $X_F-X_G$ will sometimes be positive and sometimes negative. In this sense, the dominance is only stochastic: $G$ produces larger draws than $F$ on average, but not all of the time.



          enter image description here






          share|improve this answer












          In the below figure, CDF $F(cdot)$ is first-order stochastically dominated by $G(cdot)$. But $X_1$ and $X_2$ fall within the support of both distributions. So it would be possible to draw $X_1$ from $F$ and $X_2$ from $G$, or to draw $X_2$ from $F$ and $X_1$ from $G$.



          More generally, if $X_G$ is a draw from $G$ and $X_F$ is a draw from $F$ then $X_F-X_G$ will sometimes be positive and sometimes negative. In this sense, the dominance is only stochastic: $G$ produces larger draws than $F$ on average, but not all of the time.



          enter image description here







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          answered 2 hours ago









          Ubiquitous♦

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          13.5k32363











          • Great explanation!
            – High GPA
            2 hours ago
















          • Great explanation!
            – High GPA
            2 hours ago















          Great explanation!
          – High GPA
          2 hours ago




          Great explanation!
          – High GPA
          2 hours ago

















           

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