Composition and Addition on a Set of Function and Consequences for Distributitivity

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I'm working on the following question:




Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
$$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
Which of the following is true:



  1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

  2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    I'm working on the following question:




    Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
    $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
    Which of the following is true:



    1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

    2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



    By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



    Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I'm working on the following question:




      Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
      $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
      Which of the following is true:



      1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

      2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



      By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



      Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I'm working on the following question:




      Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
      $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
      Which of the following is true:



      1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

      2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



      By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



      Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.







      abstract-algebra






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked 27 mins ago









      yoshi

      1,008816




      1,008816




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            2
            down vote













            At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



            $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



            but



            $$ f * g = x^2 $$



            $$ f * h = 1 $$






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
              $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
              It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



              For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
              beginalign*
              (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
              & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
              endalign*



              So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted










                For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote



                    accepted







                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote



                    accepted






                    For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 21 mins ago









                    Jannik Pitt

                    239313




                    239313




















                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                        $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                        but



                        $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                        $$ f * h = 1 $$






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote













                          At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                          $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                          but



                          $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                          $$ f * h = 1 $$






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote









                            At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                            $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                            but



                            $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                            $$ f * h = 1 $$






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                            $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                            but



                            $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                            $$ f * h = 1 $$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered 24 mins ago









                            Jimmy Sabater

                            1,19013




                            1,19013




















                                up vote
                                1
                                down vote













                                For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                                $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                                It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                                For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                                beginalign*
                                (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                                & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                                endalign*



                                So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






                                share|cite|improve this answer
























                                  up vote
                                  1
                                  down vote













                                  For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                                  $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                                  It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                                  For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                                  beginalign*
                                  (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                                  & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                                  endalign*



                                  So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote









                                    For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                                    $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                                    It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                                    For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                                    beginalign*
                                    (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                                    & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                                    endalign*



                                    So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                                    $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                                    It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                                    For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                                    beginalign*
                                    (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                                    & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                                    endalign*



                                    So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered 19 mins ago









                                    Anurag A

                                    23.2k12245




                                    23.2k12245



























                                         

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