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In Hosea 2:16, why did Israel call YHWH “My Baal�
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I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.
When Hosea says,
And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)
I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?
hosea
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.
When Hosea says,
And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)
I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?
hosea
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.
When Hosea says,
And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)
I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?
hosea
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.
When Hosea says,
And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)
I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?
hosea
hosea
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
edited 2 hours ago
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
asked 3 hours ago
Ernest Abinokhauno
677116
677116
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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up vote
2
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The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:
- owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"
- having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"
- the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"
- husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"
The noun "ish" (×Âיש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".
So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".
Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.
My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is
And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").
That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.
The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):
I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
can also be read as:
I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
It seems it's because they had backslided.
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:
- owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"
- having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"
- the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"
- husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"
The noun "ish" (×Âיש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".
So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".
Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.
My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is
And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").
That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.
The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):
I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
can also be read as:
I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:
- owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"
- having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"
- the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"
- husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"
The noun "ish" (×Âיש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".
So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".
Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.
My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is
And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").
That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.
The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):
I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
can also be read as:
I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:
- owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"
- having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"
- the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"
- husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"
The noun "ish" (×Âיש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".
So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".
Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.
My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is
And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").
That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.
The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):
I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
can also be read as:
I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:
- owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"
- having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"
- the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"
- husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"
The noun "ish" (×Âיש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".
So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".
Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.
My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is
And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").
That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.
The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):
I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
can also be read as:
I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
answered 1 hour ago
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
3,836725
3,836725
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
– Ernest Abinokhauno
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
Excellent Answer +1
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
– Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
– Dr Peter McGowan
1 hour ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
– Ernest Abinokhauno
49 mins ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
It seems it's because they had backslided.
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It seems it's because they had backslided.
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
It seems it's because they had backslided.
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
It seems it's because they had backslided.
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
answered 1 hour ago
Oluwabunmi Ernest
575
575
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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