In Hosea 2:16-17, why did Israel call YHWH “My Baal”?

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I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.



When Hosea says,




And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)




I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?



Another reason I am trying to explore this question is because of the contrast I see in Exodus 23:13 and Hosea 2:17:



In Exodus 23:13, Moses warned the Israelite by saying:




“Pay attention to all that I have said to you, and make no mention of
the names of other gods
, nor let it be heard on your lips. (ESV)




And in Hosea 2:17, the Prophet Hosea says:




For I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth, and they
shall be remembered by name no more. (ESV).




Moses had warned them to "make no mention of the names of other gods" and according to Hosea, I see that the Lord was not well pleased that Israel were calling him "My Baal" and says, "I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth"



How did those names get to their mouths in the first place? What is the etymology of those names? Are they of Hebrew or Canaanite origin?










share|improve this question



























    up vote
    6
    down vote

    favorite












    I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.



    When Hosea says,




    And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
    no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)




    I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?



    Another reason I am trying to explore this question is because of the contrast I see in Exodus 23:13 and Hosea 2:17:



    In Exodus 23:13, Moses warned the Israelite by saying:




    “Pay attention to all that I have said to you, and make no mention of
    the names of other gods
    , nor let it be heard on your lips. (ESV)




    And in Hosea 2:17, the Prophet Hosea says:




    For I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth, and they
    shall be remembered by name no more. (ESV).




    Moses had warned them to "make no mention of the names of other gods" and according to Hosea, I see that the Lord was not well pleased that Israel were calling him "My Baal" and says, "I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth"



    How did those names get to their mouths in the first place? What is the etymology of those names? Are they of Hebrew or Canaanite origin?










    share|improve this question

























      up vote
      6
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      6
      down vote

      favorite











      I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.



      When Hosea says,




      And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
      no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)




      I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?



      Another reason I am trying to explore this question is because of the contrast I see in Exodus 23:13 and Hosea 2:17:



      In Exodus 23:13, Moses warned the Israelite by saying:




      “Pay attention to all that I have said to you, and make no mention of
      the names of other gods
      , nor let it be heard on your lips. (ESV)




      And in Hosea 2:17, the Prophet Hosea says:




      For I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth, and they
      shall be remembered by name no more. (ESV).




      Moses had warned them to "make no mention of the names of other gods" and according to Hosea, I see that the Lord was not well pleased that Israel were calling him "My Baal" and says, "I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth"



      How did those names get to their mouths in the first place? What is the etymology of those names? Are they of Hebrew or Canaanite origin?










      share|improve this question















      I understand that YHWH revealed himself to Israel by different names, which "Baal" was never one of such identity tags. Evidently, the revelation of each name was akin to a specific manifestation of his wonders.



      When Hosea says,




      And in that day, declares the Lord, you will call me ‘My Husband,’ and
      no longer will you call me ‘My Baal.’ (Hosea 2:16 ESV)




      I am left with reservations as to whether YHWH by accident or design exhibited some attributes that made Israel to address him as "My Baal". If not, then, why were they addressing YHWH as "My Baal"?



      Another reason I am trying to explore this question is because of the contrast I see in Exodus 23:13 and Hosea 2:17:



      In Exodus 23:13, Moses warned the Israelite by saying:




      “Pay attention to all that I have said to you, and make no mention of
      the names of other gods
      , nor let it be heard on your lips. (ESV)




      And in Hosea 2:17, the Prophet Hosea says:




      For I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth, and they
      shall be remembered by name no more. (ESV).




      Moses had warned them to "make no mention of the names of other gods" and according to Hosea, I see that the Lord was not well pleased that Israel were calling him "My Baal" and says, "I will remove the names of the Baals from her mouth"



      How did those names get to their mouths in the first place? What is the etymology of those names? Are they of Hebrew or Canaanite origin?







      hosea






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      Ernest Abinokhauno

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          The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:



          1. owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"

          2. having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"

          3. the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"

          4. husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"

          The noun "ish" (איש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".



          So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".



          Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.



          My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is




          And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").




          That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.



          The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):




          I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.




          can also be read as:




          I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.







          share|improve this answer




















          • How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
            – Ernest Abinokhauno
            15 hours ago











          • Excellent Answer +1
            – Dr Peter McGowan
            15 hours ago










          • The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
            – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
            15 hours ago











          • The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
            – Dr Peter McGowan
            15 hours ago










          • I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
            – Ernest Abinokhauno
            15 hours ago

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It seems it's because they had backslided.






          share|improve this answer



























            up vote
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            In the original Hebrew manuscript, verse 16 mentioned "Baali" which means master. Different from the one mentioned in verse 17:




            "for I will take away the names of Baalim..."




            which means Baal, the Phoenician deity.



            Verse 16 just meant to say they will not call the Lord master anymore but they will call Him Ishi meaning a man/a fellow/husband. Husband being the meaning of Ishi will support the context of verse 19.
            You can consult the King James version with Strongs Dictionary because it is an older translation and the wordings is more likely preserved from the Hebrew and Greek manuscript.






            share|improve this answer








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            Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            • Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
              – b a
              3 hours ago










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            up vote
            6
            down vote













            The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:



            1. owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"

            2. having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"

            3. the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"

            4. husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"

            The noun "ish" (איש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".



            So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".



            Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.



            My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is




            And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").




            That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.



            The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):




            I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.




            can also be read as:




            I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.







            share|improve this answer




















            • How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago











            • Excellent Answer +1
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
              – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
              15 hours ago











            • The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago














            up vote
            6
            down vote













            The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:



            1. owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"

            2. having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"

            3. the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"

            4. husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"

            The noun "ish" (איש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".



            So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".



            Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.



            My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is




            And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").




            That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.



            The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):




            I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.




            can also be read as:




            I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.







            share|improve this answer




















            • How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago











            • Excellent Answer +1
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
              – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
              15 hours ago











            • The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago












            up vote
            6
            down vote










            up vote
            6
            down vote









            The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:



            1. owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"

            2. having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"

            3. the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"

            4. husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"

            The noun "ish" (איש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".



            So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".



            Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.



            My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is




            And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").




            That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.



            The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):




            I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.




            can also be read as:




            I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.







            share|improve this answer












            The noun "baal" (בעל) has several meanings. The four most common are:



            1. owner (or master) - as in Exodus 21:34, "the owner of the pit must pay"

            2. having some characteristic - Genesis 37:19, "here's that dreamer of dreams", Ecclesiastes 10:20, "and a bird [lit. a thing with wings] will inform"

            3. the common term for Canaanite deities, probably from the meaning "master"

            4. husband (master) of a wife - Exodus 21:3, "if he is master of a wife (has a wife, is married)"

            The noun "ish" (איש) can mean "man" or in the possessive with relation to a woman means "husband".



            So "baal" and "ish" are two common ways of expressing the relationship of husband in Hebrew. As an off-topic side note, in modern Hebrew, although the term "baal" is the more common term for husband, some women who object to the overtone of "master" inherent in "baal" use the term "ishi", "my man" when referring to their husbands rather than "baali".



            Hosea uses the allegory of courtship and marriage to describe the relationship of Israel to God, where Israel is the bride and God is the groom or husband. The use of this allegory then sets up possibility of playing off the two meanings of "baal" as the Canaanite god or gods with whom Israel is unfaithful, and "baal" as Israel's "husband", referring to God.



            My translation of verse 2:16 (MT 2:18) is




            And it will be in that day, says YHVH, that you will call me "my husband" ("ishi") and will no longer call me "my husband" ("baali").




            That is, the verse uses two common synonyms for "husband", each with it's own connotations.



            The first synonym for husband, "ishi", is a reference to the use of this term for husband in verse 2 (MT 4) where "ishi" connotates intimacy and love "my man" (as noted by RASHI). The second synonym for husband in verse 16, "baali", has a less intimate connotation of "master" and is a play on the use of "baal" referring to the Canaanite gods. Continuing this play on synonyms, the following verse, (NIV 17):




            I will remove the names of the Baals from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.




            can also be read as:




            I will remove the names of the husbands [with whom she has been unfaithful to me] from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.








            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 16 hours ago









            Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim

            3,876725




            3,876725











            • How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago











            • Excellent Answer +1
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
              – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
              15 hours ago











            • The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago
















            • How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago











            • Excellent Answer +1
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
              – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
              15 hours ago











            • The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
              – Dr Peter McGowan
              15 hours ago










            • I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
              – Ernest Abinokhauno
              15 hours ago















            How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
            – Ernest Abinokhauno
            15 hours ago





            How would you explain the use of "baali" in King James and "baal" in other versions? And also the relationship that the name "baal" has with the gods of the Ekronites?
            – Ernest Abinokhauno
            15 hours ago













            Excellent Answer +1
            – Dr Peter McGowan
            15 hours ago




            Excellent Answer +1
            – Dr Peter McGowan
            15 hours ago












            The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
            – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
            15 hours ago





            The KJV solves the synonym translation problem by not translating at all, just using the Hebrew nouns in transliteration, "And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali.". The term "baal" referring to Canaanite gods is not a reference to any specific god or gods, who are of no concern to the prophet, just to foreign gods in general with whom Israel has been unfaithful.
            – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim
            15 hours ago













            The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
            – Dr Peter McGowan
            15 hours ago




            The NIV renders this verse, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me "my master'".
            – Dr Peter McGowan
            15 hours ago












            I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
            – Ernest Abinokhauno
            15 hours ago




            I am satisfied with your answer here, Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim. But I am still not sure of why the Canaanites address their gods as Baal (in conversation with your answer to my initial question.)
            – Ernest Abinokhauno
            15 hours ago










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            It seems it's because they had backslided.






            share|improve this answer
























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              It seems it's because they had backslided.






              share|improve this answer






















                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                It seems it's because they had backslided.






                share|improve this answer












                It seems it's because they had backslided.







                share|improve this answer












                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer










                answered 16 hours ago









                Oluwabunmi Ernest

                675




                675




















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    In the original Hebrew manuscript, verse 16 mentioned "Baali" which means master. Different from the one mentioned in verse 17:




                    "for I will take away the names of Baalim..."




                    which means Baal, the Phoenician deity.



                    Verse 16 just meant to say they will not call the Lord master anymore but they will call Him Ishi meaning a man/a fellow/husband. Husband being the meaning of Ishi will support the context of verse 19.
                    You can consult the King James version with Strongs Dictionary because it is an older translation and the wordings is more likely preserved from the Hebrew and Greek manuscript.






                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                    • Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
                      – b a
                      3 hours ago














                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    In the original Hebrew manuscript, verse 16 mentioned "Baali" which means master. Different from the one mentioned in verse 17:




                    "for I will take away the names of Baalim..."




                    which means Baal, the Phoenician deity.



                    Verse 16 just meant to say they will not call the Lord master anymore but they will call Him Ishi meaning a man/a fellow/husband. Husband being the meaning of Ishi will support the context of verse 19.
                    You can consult the King James version with Strongs Dictionary because it is an older translation and the wordings is more likely preserved from the Hebrew and Greek manuscript.






                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.

















                    • Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
                      – b a
                      3 hours ago












                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    In the original Hebrew manuscript, verse 16 mentioned "Baali" which means master. Different from the one mentioned in verse 17:




                    "for I will take away the names of Baalim..."




                    which means Baal, the Phoenician deity.



                    Verse 16 just meant to say they will not call the Lord master anymore but they will call Him Ishi meaning a man/a fellow/husband. Husband being the meaning of Ishi will support the context of verse 19.
                    You can consult the King James version with Strongs Dictionary because it is an older translation and the wordings is more likely preserved from the Hebrew and Greek manuscript.






                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    In the original Hebrew manuscript, verse 16 mentioned "Baali" which means master. Different from the one mentioned in verse 17:




                    "for I will take away the names of Baalim..."




                    which means Baal, the Phoenician deity.



                    Verse 16 just meant to say they will not call the Lord master anymore but they will call Him Ishi meaning a man/a fellow/husband. Husband being the meaning of Ishi will support the context of verse 19.
                    You can consult the King James version with Strongs Dictionary because it is an older translation and the wordings is more likely preserved from the Hebrew and Greek manuscript.







                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer






                    New contributor




                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    answered 7 hours ago









                    Ethereum Casper

                    1




                    1




                    New contributor




                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                    New contributor





                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.






                    Ethereum Casper is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.











                    • Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
                      – b a
                      3 hours ago
















                    • Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
                      – b a
                      3 hours ago















                    Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
                    – b a
                    3 hours ago




                    Baalim (בְּעָלִים) is the plural of both master and Baal
                    – b a
                    3 hours ago

















                     

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