Is a set in between two sets of equal measure measurable?
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The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.
Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
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up vote
3
down vote
favorite
The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.
Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.
Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.
Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
measure-theory lebesgue-measure
asked 15 mins ago
Keshav Srinivasan
2,28611340
2,28611340
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If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.
But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.
But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.
But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.
But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.
If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.
But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.
answered 12 mins ago
Noah Schweber
116k10143274
116k10143274
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
add a comment |Â
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
â Keshav Srinivasan
just now
add a comment |Â
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