Is a set in between two sets of equal measure measurable?

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The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.



Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?










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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite












    The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.



    Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.



      Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?










      share|cite|improve this question













      The Lebesgue sigma algebra is complete with respect to Lebesgue measure, which means that if $A$ is a Lebesgue measurable set with Lebesgue measure $0$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, then $B$ is Lebesgue measurable as well. But I'd like to know if something stronger is true.



      Suppose that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$, where $A$ and $C$ are Lebesgue measurable sets and the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is equal to the Lebesgue measure of $C$. Then my question is, does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable as well?







      measure-theory lebesgue-measure






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      asked 15 mins ago









      Keshav Srinivasan

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          If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.



          But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.






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          • Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
            – Keshav Srinivasan
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          up vote
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          If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.



          But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.






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          • Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            just now














          up vote
          5
          down vote













          If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.



          But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            just now












          up vote
          5
          down vote










          up vote
          5
          down vote









          If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.



          But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          If $A$ and $C$ are each Lebesgue measurable, then so is $Csetminus A$ and so by finite additivity it has measure zero.



          But then $Bsetminus A$ also has measure zero and hence is measurable, so $$B=Acup(Bsetminus A)$$ is the union of two measurable sets, hence is measurable.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 12 mins ago









          Noah Schweber

          116k10143274




          116k10143274











          • Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            just now
















          • Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            just now















          Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          just now




          Thanks, that was more trivial than I thought. What about this: suppose that for any $epsilon>0$, there exist Lebesgue measurable sets $A$ and $C$ such that $A$ is a subset of $B$ which is a subset of $C$ and the Lebesgue measure of $C$ minus the Lebesgue measure of $A$ is less than $epsilon$. Then does $B$ have to be Lebesgue measurable?
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          just now

















           

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