Does hitting a creature with a magical creature counts as magical damage?

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Half-Orc Barbarian Conan has been Enlarged, making him Large. During a fight against some Couatls, he managed to grappled one and beat it to death.



Now, having already something (the body of the dead Couatl) in his hands and being a tad affected by its current rage, Conan decides to strike a second Couatl with the first one. Laughs all around the table as the DM rules that he can indeed wield the corpse as an improvised weapon (bludgeoning), given the situation.



A Couatl is immune to non-magical bludgeoning, among other things. But given the fact that the first Couatl is a magical creature and has the Magic Weapons feature, does the damage counts as magical damage?




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




If yes, would any "magical creatures" work for this purpose or only ones with the Magic Weapons feature?










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  • 2




    Out of curiousity, what did "Conan" use to kill the first couatl?
    – Slagmoth
    23 mins ago










  • @Slagmoth: he used "Gollum", the goblin rogue who has a Dagger +1.
    – Alex Millette
    43 secs ago














up vote
6
down vote

favorite
1












Half-Orc Barbarian Conan has been Enlarged, making him Large. During a fight against some Couatls, he managed to grappled one and beat it to death.



Now, having already something (the body of the dead Couatl) in his hands and being a tad affected by its current rage, Conan decides to strike a second Couatl with the first one. Laughs all around the table as the DM rules that he can indeed wield the corpse as an improvised weapon (bludgeoning), given the situation.



A Couatl is immune to non-magical bludgeoning, among other things. But given the fact that the first Couatl is a magical creature and has the Magic Weapons feature, does the damage counts as magical damage?




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




If yes, would any "magical creatures" work for this purpose or only ones with the Magic Weapons feature?










share|improve this question

















  • 2




    Out of curiousity, what did "Conan" use to kill the first couatl?
    – Slagmoth
    23 mins ago










  • @Slagmoth: he used "Gollum", the goblin rogue who has a Dagger +1.
    – Alex Millette
    43 secs ago












up vote
6
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
6
down vote

favorite
1






1





Half-Orc Barbarian Conan has been Enlarged, making him Large. During a fight against some Couatls, he managed to grappled one and beat it to death.



Now, having already something (the body of the dead Couatl) in his hands and being a tad affected by its current rage, Conan decides to strike a second Couatl with the first one. Laughs all around the table as the DM rules that he can indeed wield the corpse as an improvised weapon (bludgeoning), given the situation.



A Couatl is immune to non-magical bludgeoning, among other things. But given the fact that the first Couatl is a magical creature and has the Magic Weapons feature, does the damage counts as magical damage?




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




If yes, would any "magical creatures" work for this purpose or only ones with the Magic Weapons feature?










share|improve this question













Half-Orc Barbarian Conan has been Enlarged, making him Large. During a fight against some Couatls, he managed to grappled one and beat it to death.



Now, having already something (the body of the dead Couatl) in his hands and being a tad affected by its current rage, Conan decides to strike a second Couatl with the first one. Laughs all around the table as the DM rules that he can indeed wield the corpse as an improvised weapon (bludgeoning), given the situation.



A Couatl is immune to non-magical bludgeoning, among other things. But given the fact that the first Couatl is a magical creature and has the Magic Weapons feature, does the damage counts as magical damage?




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




If yes, would any "magical creatures" work for this purpose or only ones with the Magic Weapons feature?







dnd-5e monsters magic






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asked 44 mins ago









Alex Millette

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  • 2




    Out of curiousity, what did "Conan" use to kill the first couatl?
    – Slagmoth
    23 mins ago










  • @Slagmoth: he used "Gollum", the goblin rogue who has a Dagger +1.
    – Alex Millette
    43 secs ago












  • 2




    Out of curiousity, what did "Conan" use to kill the first couatl?
    – Slagmoth
    23 mins ago










  • @Slagmoth: he used "Gollum", the goblin rogue who has a Dagger +1.
    – Alex Millette
    43 secs ago







2




2




Out of curiousity, what did "Conan" use to kill the first couatl?
– Slagmoth
23 mins ago




Out of curiousity, what did "Conan" use to kill the first couatl?
– Slagmoth
23 mins ago












@Slagmoth: he used "Gollum", the goblin rogue who has a Dagger +1.
– Alex Millette
43 secs ago




@Slagmoth: he used "Gollum", the goblin rogue who has a Dagger +1.
– Alex Millette
43 secs ago










1 Answer
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7
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Sadly, this wouldn't work RAW



Taking your quote:




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




It only says that the weapon attacks made by the couatl are magical, so this wouldn't transfer over to the barbarian using the body of one as an improvised weapon, since the couatl is not the one making the attack.



As for "any magical creature", this isn't really a game term, so it would be difficult to determine how that would work, although given that I've concluded that the above (i.e. with Magic Weapons) wouldn't work RAW, this probably doesn't matter.



That said, any DM can rule otherwise, and if your DM ruled that this would work, that's fine. I don't think it would unbalance anything or cause any real problems.



As a DM, I'd certainly rule that this works, if only for Rules as Fun, although if the barbarian didn't have a magic weapon (hypothetically), using this as his new magic weapon I probably wouldn't allow (I'd say something like how the magical nature of the couatl is an innate property that is lost shortly after it dies or something).






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  • 3




    +1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
    – SeriousBri
    18 mins ago










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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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up vote
7
down vote













Sadly, this wouldn't work RAW



Taking your quote:




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




It only says that the weapon attacks made by the couatl are magical, so this wouldn't transfer over to the barbarian using the body of one as an improvised weapon, since the couatl is not the one making the attack.



As for "any magical creature", this isn't really a game term, so it would be difficult to determine how that would work, although given that I've concluded that the above (i.e. with Magic Weapons) wouldn't work RAW, this probably doesn't matter.



That said, any DM can rule otherwise, and if your DM ruled that this would work, that's fine. I don't think it would unbalance anything or cause any real problems.



As a DM, I'd certainly rule that this works, if only for Rules as Fun, although if the barbarian didn't have a magic weapon (hypothetically), using this as his new magic weapon I probably wouldn't allow (I'd say something like how the magical nature of the couatl is an innate property that is lost shortly after it dies or something).






share|improve this answer


















  • 3




    +1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
    – SeriousBri
    18 mins ago














up vote
7
down vote













Sadly, this wouldn't work RAW



Taking your quote:




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




It only says that the weapon attacks made by the couatl are magical, so this wouldn't transfer over to the barbarian using the body of one as an improvised weapon, since the couatl is not the one making the attack.



As for "any magical creature", this isn't really a game term, so it would be difficult to determine how that would work, although given that I've concluded that the above (i.e. with Magic Weapons) wouldn't work RAW, this probably doesn't matter.



That said, any DM can rule otherwise, and if your DM ruled that this would work, that's fine. I don't think it would unbalance anything or cause any real problems.



As a DM, I'd certainly rule that this works, if only for Rules as Fun, although if the barbarian didn't have a magic weapon (hypothetically), using this as his new magic weapon I probably wouldn't allow (I'd say something like how the magical nature of the couatl is an innate property that is lost shortly after it dies or something).






share|improve this answer


















  • 3




    +1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
    – SeriousBri
    18 mins ago












up vote
7
down vote










up vote
7
down vote









Sadly, this wouldn't work RAW



Taking your quote:




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




It only says that the weapon attacks made by the couatl are magical, so this wouldn't transfer over to the barbarian using the body of one as an improvised weapon, since the couatl is not the one making the attack.



As for "any magical creature", this isn't really a game term, so it would be difficult to determine how that would work, although given that I've concluded that the above (i.e. with Magic Weapons) wouldn't work RAW, this probably doesn't matter.



That said, any DM can rule otherwise, and if your DM ruled that this would work, that's fine. I don't think it would unbalance anything or cause any real problems.



As a DM, I'd certainly rule that this works, if only for Rules as Fun, although if the barbarian didn't have a magic weapon (hypothetically), using this as his new magic weapon I probably wouldn't allow (I'd say something like how the magical nature of the couatl is an innate property that is lost shortly after it dies or something).






share|improve this answer














Sadly, this wouldn't work RAW



Taking your quote:




Magic Weapons: The couatl's weapon attacks are magical.




It only says that the weapon attacks made by the couatl are magical, so this wouldn't transfer over to the barbarian using the body of one as an improvised weapon, since the couatl is not the one making the attack.



As for "any magical creature", this isn't really a game term, so it would be difficult to determine how that would work, although given that I've concluded that the above (i.e. with Magic Weapons) wouldn't work RAW, this probably doesn't matter.



That said, any DM can rule otherwise, and if your DM ruled that this would work, that's fine. I don't think it would unbalance anything or cause any real problems.



As a DM, I'd certainly rule that this works, if only for Rules as Fun, although if the barbarian didn't have a magic weapon (hypothetically), using this as his new magic weapon I probably wouldn't allow (I'd say something like how the magical nature of the couatl is an innate property that is lost shortly after it dies or something).







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 18 mins ago

























answered 20 mins ago









NathanS

18.7k678197




18.7k678197







  • 3




    +1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
    – SeriousBri
    18 mins ago












  • 3




    +1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
    – SeriousBri
    18 mins ago







3




3




+1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
– SeriousBri
18 mins ago




+1 for a common sense ruling. RAW is sometimes a spoilsport.
– SeriousBri
18 mins ago

















 

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