Can a set of positive measure and its complement both have empty interior?

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This might be silly, but I am not sure:



Does there exist a Lebesgue measurable subset $E subseteq (0,1)$ such that



  1. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have positive Lebesgue measure.


  2. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have empty interiors.


If we relax condition $1$, then $E=Qcap (0,1)$ works. If we relax condition $2$, then the fat Cantor set does the job. (Its complement have non-empty interior though).










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  • In my answer to this question I constructed an $F_sigma$ set $Msubseteqmathbb R$ such that $0lt m(Mcap I)lt m(I)$ for every interval $I$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Obviously the sets $M$ and $mathbb Rsetminus M$ have positive Lebesgue measure and have empty interiors, and the same goes for the sets $E=Mcap(0,1)$ and $(0,1)setminus E$.
    – bof
    14 secs ago














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












This might be silly, but I am not sure:



Does there exist a Lebesgue measurable subset $E subseteq (0,1)$ such that



  1. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have positive Lebesgue measure.


  2. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have empty interiors.


If we relax condition $1$, then $E=Qcap (0,1)$ works. If we relax condition $2$, then the fat Cantor set does the job. (Its complement have non-empty interior though).










share|cite|improve this question























  • In my answer to this question I constructed an $F_sigma$ set $Msubseteqmathbb R$ such that $0lt m(Mcap I)lt m(I)$ for every interval $I$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Obviously the sets $M$ and $mathbb Rsetminus M$ have positive Lebesgue measure and have empty interiors, and the same goes for the sets $E=Mcap(0,1)$ and $(0,1)setminus E$.
    – bof
    14 secs ago












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











This might be silly, but I am not sure:



Does there exist a Lebesgue measurable subset $E subseteq (0,1)$ such that



  1. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have positive Lebesgue measure.


  2. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have empty interiors.


If we relax condition $1$, then $E=Qcap (0,1)$ works. If we relax condition $2$, then the fat Cantor set does the job. (Its complement have non-empty interior though).










share|cite|improve this question















This might be silly, but I am not sure:



Does there exist a Lebesgue measurable subset $E subseteq (0,1)$ such that



  1. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have positive Lebesgue measure.


  2. $E$ and $(0,1) setminus E$ both have empty interiors.


If we relax condition $1$, then $E=Qcap (0,1)$ works. If we relax condition $2$, then the fat Cantor set does the job. (Its complement have non-empty interior though).







general-topology measure-theory examples-counterexamples cantor-set






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edited 1 hour ago

























asked 2 hours ago









Asaf Shachar

4,7533939




4,7533939











  • In my answer to this question I constructed an $F_sigma$ set $Msubseteqmathbb R$ such that $0lt m(Mcap I)lt m(I)$ for every interval $I$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Obviously the sets $M$ and $mathbb Rsetminus M$ have positive Lebesgue measure and have empty interiors, and the same goes for the sets $E=Mcap(0,1)$ and $(0,1)setminus E$.
    – bof
    14 secs ago
















  • In my answer to this question I constructed an $F_sigma$ set $Msubseteqmathbb R$ such that $0lt m(Mcap I)lt m(I)$ for every interval $I$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Obviously the sets $M$ and $mathbb Rsetminus M$ have positive Lebesgue measure and have empty interiors, and the same goes for the sets $E=Mcap(0,1)$ and $(0,1)setminus E$.
    – bof
    14 secs ago















In my answer to this question I constructed an $F_sigma$ set $Msubseteqmathbb R$ such that $0lt m(Mcap I)lt m(I)$ for every interval $I$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Obviously the sets $M$ and $mathbb Rsetminus M$ have positive Lebesgue measure and have empty interiors, and the same goes for the sets $E=Mcap(0,1)$ and $(0,1)setminus E$.
– bof
14 secs ago




In my answer to this question I constructed an $F_sigma$ set $Msubseteqmathbb R$ such that $0lt m(Mcap I)lt m(I)$ for every interval $I$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Obviously the sets $M$ and $mathbb Rsetminus M$ have positive Lebesgue measure and have empty interiors, and the same goes for the sets $E=Mcap(0,1)$ and $(0,1)setminus E$.
– bof
14 secs ago










2 Answers
2






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up vote
3
down vote













Let $E$ be the union of $(0,1) setminus mathbb Q)cap (0,frac 1 2]$ and $mathbb Qcap (frac 1 2,1)$. Then $E$ and $(0,1)setminus E$ both have positive measure and they have no interior.






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  • I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
    – Asaf Shachar
    1 hour ago






  • 1




    No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    1 hour ago










  • Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
    – MJD
    1 hour ago











  • @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    40 mins ago










  • @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    40 mins ago

















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2
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Let $E$ be a fat Cantor set $C$ together with the $C^complementcapmathbb Q$.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Let $E$ be the union of $(0,1) setminus mathbb Q)cap (0,frac 1 2]$ and $mathbb Qcap (frac 1 2,1)$. Then $E$ and $(0,1)setminus E$ both have positive measure and they have no interior.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
      – Asaf Shachar
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      1 hour ago










    • Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
      – MJD
      1 hour ago











    • @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago










    • @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago














    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Let $E$ be the union of $(0,1) setminus mathbb Q)cap (0,frac 1 2]$ and $mathbb Qcap (frac 1 2,1)$. Then $E$ and $(0,1)setminus E$ both have positive measure and they have no interior.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
      – Asaf Shachar
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      1 hour ago










    • Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
      – MJD
      1 hour ago











    • @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago










    • @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago












    up vote
    3
    down vote










    up vote
    3
    down vote









    Let $E$ be the union of $(0,1) setminus mathbb Q)cap (0,frac 1 2]$ and $mathbb Qcap (frac 1 2,1)$. Then $E$ and $(0,1)setminus E$ both have positive measure and they have no interior.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Let $E$ be the union of $(0,1) setminus mathbb Q)cap (0,frac 1 2]$ and $mathbb Qcap (frac 1 2,1)$. Then $E$ and $(0,1)setminus E$ both have positive measure and they have no interior.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 41 mins ago

























    answered 1 hour ago









    Kavi Rama Murthy

    35.2k31746




    35.2k31746











    • I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
      – Asaf Shachar
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      1 hour ago










    • Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
      – MJD
      1 hour ago











    • @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago










    • @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago
















    • I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
      – Asaf Shachar
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      1 hour ago










    • Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
      – MJD
      1 hour ago











    • @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago










    • @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      40 mins ago















    I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
    – Asaf Shachar
    1 hour ago




    I am not sure I understand. I meant to take the complement inside $(0,1)$...
    – Asaf Shachar
    1 hour ago




    1




    1




    No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    1 hour ago




    No big deal. I had given an example in $mathbb R$ and now I have changed it to $(0,1)$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    1 hour ago












    Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
    – MJD
    1 hour ago





    Neither of those two sets satisfies condition 1. Their union is supposed to be $(0,1)$. Have I misunderstood? What set do you think $E$ is?
    – MJD
    1 hour ago













    @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    40 mins ago




    @MJD You are right. Only a slight modification was required. Please see my answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    40 mins ago












    @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    40 mins ago




    @AsafShachar Please see my revised answer.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    40 mins ago










    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Let $E$ be a fat Cantor set $C$ together with the $C^complementcapmathbb Q$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Let $E$ be a fat Cantor set $C$ together with the $C^complementcapmathbb Q$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        2
        down vote










        up vote
        2
        down vote









        Let $E$ be a fat Cantor set $C$ together with the $C^complementcapmathbb Q$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Let $E$ be a fat Cantor set $C$ together with the $C^complementcapmathbb Q$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 1 hour ago









        José Carlos Santos

        134k17108197




        134k17108197



























             

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