What epithet would John Quincy Adams use?

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In his journal for 1824, John Quincy Adams records an incident where he was informed that a William King was telling people that he [Adams] should be nominated for vice-president under Crawford, one of his [Adams'] opponents. He "applied an epithet to King" that he refuses to commit to paper.



The full quote (emphasis mine):




Dr. Watkins told me that William King had assured him that my friends had agreed that I should be nominated in caucus as Vice-President, with a nomination of Crawford as President. I applied an epithet to King for saying this, which I will not commit to paper-- adding that it was impossible any friends of mine should have undertaken thus to dispose of me without consulting me first.




  • source Memoirs of John Quincy Adams, comprising portions of his diary from 1795 to 1848, Volume 6

In 1824, what epithet would it be likely for Adams to have used?










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    I replaced the link for the source with one to a copy of the volume on archive.org. Please feel free to roll-back if that's not OK.
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In his journal for 1824, John Quincy Adams records an incident where he was informed that a William King was telling people that he [Adams] should be nominated for vice-president under Crawford, one of his [Adams'] opponents. He "applied an epithet to King" that he refuses to commit to paper.



The full quote (emphasis mine):




Dr. Watkins told me that William King had assured him that my friends had agreed that I should be nominated in caucus as Vice-President, with a nomination of Crawford as President. I applied an epithet to King for saying this, which I will not commit to paper-- adding that it was impossible any friends of mine should have undertaken thus to dispose of me without consulting me first.




  • source Memoirs of John Quincy Adams, comprising portions of his diary from 1795 to 1848, Volume 6

In 1824, what epithet would it be likely for Adams to have used?










share|improve this question









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  • 1




    I replaced the link for the source with one to a copy of the volume on archive.org. Please feel free to roll-back if that's not OK.
    – sempaiscuba♦
    32 mins ago













up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











In his journal for 1824, John Quincy Adams records an incident where he was informed that a William King was telling people that he [Adams] should be nominated for vice-president under Crawford, one of his [Adams'] opponents. He "applied an epithet to King" that he refuses to commit to paper.



The full quote (emphasis mine):




Dr. Watkins told me that William King had assured him that my friends had agreed that I should be nominated in caucus as Vice-President, with a nomination of Crawford as President. I applied an epithet to King for saying this, which I will not commit to paper-- adding that it was impossible any friends of mine should have undertaken thus to dispose of me without consulting me first.




  • source Memoirs of John Quincy Adams, comprising portions of his diary from 1795 to 1848, Volume 6

In 1824, what epithet would it be likely for Adams to have used?










share|improve this question









New contributor




ale10ander is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











In his journal for 1824, John Quincy Adams records an incident where he was informed that a William King was telling people that he [Adams] should be nominated for vice-president under Crawford, one of his [Adams'] opponents. He "applied an epithet to King" that he refuses to commit to paper.



The full quote (emphasis mine):




Dr. Watkins told me that William King had assured him that my friends had agreed that I should be nominated in caucus as Vice-President, with a nomination of Crawford as President. I applied an epithet to King for saying this, which I will not commit to paper-- adding that it was impossible any friends of mine should have undertaken thus to dispose of me without consulting me first.




  • source Memoirs of John Quincy Adams, comprising portions of his diary from 1795 to 1848, Volume 6

In 1824, what epithet would it be likely for Adams to have used?







united-states 19th-century language






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edited 34 mins ago









sempaiscuba♦

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  • 1




    I replaced the link for the source with one to a copy of the volume on archive.org. Please feel free to roll-back if that's not OK.
    – sempaiscuba♦
    32 mins ago













  • 1




    I replaced the link for the source with one to a copy of the volume on archive.org. Please feel free to roll-back if that's not OK.
    – sempaiscuba♦
    32 mins ago








1




1




I replaced the link for the source with one to a copy of the volume on archive.org. Please feel free to roll-back if that's not OK.
– sempaiscuba♦
32 mins ago





I replaced the link for the source with one to a copy of the volume on archive.org. Please feel free to roll-back if that's not OK.
– sempaiscuba♦
32 mins ago











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Very astute question. One of the amusing bits I read about the old HBO western series Deadwood was that its copious cursing was purposely not period, but translated. Their researchers reported that cursing in the 19th Century was largely profane (taking The Lord's name in vain in some way), and they made the decision to translate it into modern sexual cursing so it would have the same impact on the audience as it would have to listeners at the time.



According to John Spurr, professor of history at Swansea University, this was in fact the case from the 15th-18th centuries as well, but even moreso. My favorite quote from in there




It was said that Thames bargemen had only ever heard the name of their saviour as part of a profane oath.




So most likely what was uttered was some form of suggestion that God should damn the person in question. However, the Deadwood writers would argue that this should probably be "translated" into modern English using something sexual* to have the same reaction out of a modern audience.



* - Likely using the F-word, but perhaps instead suggesting some inclination out of heterosexuality or into incest. Watch an episode of Deadwood, or go drive slow in New Jersey if you need inspiration.






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    Very astute question. One of the amusing bits I read about the old HBO western series Deadwood was that its copious cursing was purposely not period, but translated. Their researchers reported that cursing in the 19th Century was largely profane (taking The Lord's name in vain in some way), and they made the decision to translate it into modern sexual cursing so it would have the same impact on the audience as it would have to listeners at the time.



    According to John Spurr, professor of history at Swansea University, this was in fact the case from the 15th-18th centuries as well, but even moreso. My favorite quote from in there




    It was said that Thames bargemen had only ever heard the name of their saviour as part of a profane oath.




    So most likely what was uttered was some form of suggestion that God should damn the person in question. However, the Deadwood writers would argue that this should probably be "translated" into modern English using something sexual* to have the same reaction out of a modern audience.



    * - Likely using the F-word, but perhaps instead suggesting some inclination out of heterosexuality or into incest. Watch an episode of Deadwood, or go drive slow in New Jersey if you need inspiration.






    share|improve this answer


























      up vote
      3
      down vote













      Very astute question. One of the amusing bits I read about the old HBO western series Deadwood was that its copious cursing was purposely not period, but translated. Their researchers reported that cursing in the 19th Century was largely profane (taking The Lord's name in vain in some way), and they made the decision to translate it into modern sexual cursing so it would have the same impact on the audience as it would have to listeners at the time.



      According to John Spurr, professor of history at Swansea University, this was in fact the case from the 15th-18th centuries as well, but even moreso. My favorite quote from in there




      It was said that Thames bargemen had only ever heard the name of their saviour as part of a profane oath.




      So most likely what was uttered was some form of suggestion that God should damn the person in question. However, the Deadwood writers would argue that this should probably be "translated" into modern English using something sexual* to have the same reaction out of a modern audience.



      * - Likely using the F-word, but perhaps instead suggesting some inclination out of heterosexuality or into incest. Watch an episode of Deadwood, or go drive slow in New Jersey if you need inspiration.






      share|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote










        up vote
        3
        down vote









        Very astute question. One of the amusing bits I read about the old HBO western series Deadwood was that its copious cursing was purposely not period, but translated. Their researchers reported that cursing in the 19th Century was largely profane (taking The Lord's name in vain in some way), and they made the decision to translate it into modern sexual cursing so it would have the same impact on the audience as it would have to listeners at the time.



        According to John Spurr, professor of history at Swansea University, this was in fact the case from the 15th-18th centuries as well, but even moreso. My favorite quote from in there




        It was said that Thames bargemen had only ever heard the name of their saviour as part of a profane oath.




        So most likely what was uttered was some form of suggestion that God should damn the person in question. However, the Deadwood writers would argue that this should probably be "translated" into modern English using something sexual* to have the same reaction out of a modern audience.



        * - Likely using the F-word, but perhaps instead suggesting some inclination out of heterosexuality or into incest. Watch an episode of Deadwood, or go drive slow in New Jersey if you need inspiration.






        share|improve this answer














        Very astute question. One of the amusing bits I read about the old HBO western series Deadwood was that its copious cursing was purposely not period, but translated. Their researchers reported that cursing in the 19th Century was largely profane (taking The Lord's name in vain in some way), and they made the decision to translate it into modern sexual cursing so it would have the same impact on the audience as it would have to listeners at the time.



        According to John Spurr, professor of history at Swansea University, this was in fact the case from the 15th-18th centuries as well, but even moreso. My favorite quote from in there




        It was said that Thames bargemen had only ever heard the name of their saviour as part of a profane oath.




        So most likely what was uttered was some form of suggestion that God should damn the person in question. However, the Deadwood writers would argue that this should probably be "translated" into modern English using something sexual* to have the same reaction out of a modern audience.



        * - Likely using the F-word, but perhaps instead suggesting some inclination out of heterosexuality or into incest. Watch an episode of Deadwood, or go drive slow in New Jersey if you need inspiration.







        share|improve this answer














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        edited 33 mins ago

























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        T.E.D.♦

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