Range of real values of sin(z)

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Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?



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    Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
    – Hirshy
    51 mins ago














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Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?



Sorry for the formatting, I’m on mobile.










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  • 1




    Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
    – Hirshy
    51 mins ago












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?



Sorry for the formatting, I’m on mobile.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Matt is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?



Sorry for the formatting, I’m on mobile.







trigonometry complex-numbers hyperbolic-functions hyperbolic-equations






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edited 56 mins ago









Mark Viola

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asked 1 hour ago









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  • 1




    Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
    – Hirshy
    51 mins ago












  • 1




    Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
    – Hirshy
    51 mins ago







1




1




Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
– Hirshy
51 mins ago




Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
– Hirshy
51 mins ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).



Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
$$
fract-t^-12i=w
$$
that is
$$
t^2-2iwt-1=0
$$
Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:



    as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Nice use of the sledgehammer!
      – egreg
      42 mins ago










    • @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
      – Hirshy
      40 mins ago

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    $$
    sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
    sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
    $$



    So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.






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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).



      Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
      $$
      fract-t^-12i=w
      $$
      that is
      $$
      t^2-2iwt-1=0
      $$
      Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted










        The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).



        Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
        $$
        fract-t^-12i=w
        $$
        that is
        $$
        t^2-2iwt-1=0
        $$
        Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).



          Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
          $$
          fract-t^-12i=w
          $$
          that is
          $$
          t^2-2iwt-1=0
          $$
          Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).



          Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
          $$
          fract-t^-12i=w
          $$
          that is
          $$
          t^2-2iwt-1=0
          $$
          Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 49 mins ago









          egreg

          167k1180189




          167k1180189




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:



              as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • Nice use of the sledgehammer!
                – egreg
                42 mins ago










              • @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
                – Hirshy
                40 mins ago














              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:



              as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • Nice use of the sledgehammer!
                – egreg
                42 mins ago










              • @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
                – Hirshy
                40 mins ago












              up vote
              2
              down vote










              up vote
              2
              down vote









              Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:



              as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:



              as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered 46 mins ago









              Hirshy

              4,32921336




              4,32921336











              • Nice use of the sledgehammer!
                – egreg
                42 mins ago










              • @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
                – Hirshy
                40 mins ago
















              • Nice use of the sledgehammer!
                – egreg
                42 mins ago










              • @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
                – Hirshy
                40 mins ago















              Nice use of the sledgehammer!
              – egreg
              42 mins ago




              Nice use of the sledgehammer!
              – egreg
              42 mins ago












              @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
              – Hirshy
              40 mins ago




              @egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
              – Hirshy
              40 mins ago










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              $$
              sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
              sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
              $$



              So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                $$
                sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
                sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
                $$



                So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  $$
                  sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
                  sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
                  $$



                  So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  $$
                  sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
                  sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
                  $$



                  So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 47 mins ago









                  AHusain

                  1,914714




                  1,914714




















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