Range of real values of sin(z)
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Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?
Sorry for the formatting, IâÂÂm on mobile.
trigonometry complex-numbers hyperbolic-functions hyperbolic-equations
New contributor
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?
Sorry for the formatting, IâÂÂm on mobile.
trigonometry complex-numbers hyperbolic-functions hyperbolic-equations
New contributor
1
Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
â Hirshy
51 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?
Sorry for the formatting, IâÂÂm on mobile.
trigonometry complex-numbers hyperbolic-functions hyperbolic-equations
New contributor
Given $f(z) = sin(z)$ such that $z$ is an element of the complex numbers is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all the reals?
Is the range of the real part of $f(z)$ all reals given that the imaginary part is zero?
Sorry for the formatting, IâÂÂm on mobile.
trigonometry complex-numbers hyperbolic-functions hyperbolic-equations
trigonometry complex-numbers hyperbolic-functions hyperbolic-equations
New contributor
New contributor
edited 56 mins ago
Mark Viola
126k1172167
126k1172167
New contributor
asked 1 hour ago
Matt
183
183
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New contributor
1
Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
â Hirshy
51 mins ago
add a comment |Â
1
Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
â Hirshy
51 mins ago
1
1
Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
â Hirshy
51 mins ago
Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
â Hirshy
51 mins ago
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).
Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
$$
fract-t^-12i=w
$$
that is
$$
t^2-2iwt-1=0
$$
Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:
as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
$$
sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
$$
So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).
Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
$$
fract-t^-12i=w
$$
that is
$$
t^2-2iwt-1=0
$$
Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).
Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
$$
fract-t^-12i=w
$$
that is
$$
t^2-2iwt-1=0
$$
Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).
Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
$$
fract-t^-12i=w
$$
that is
$$
t^2-2iwt-1=0
$$
Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.
The equation $sin z=w$ has solution for every complex $w$ (in particular real).
Indeed, if $t=e^iz$, the equation becomes
$$
fract-t^-12i=w
$$
that is
$$
t^2-2iwt-1=0
$$
Therefore $t=iw+sqrt1-w^2$ (or its inverse). In particular $0$ is never a solution and the equation $e^iz=t$ certainly has solution.
answered 49 mins ago
egreg
167k1180189
167k1180189
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:
as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:
as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:
as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.
Building on my comment here is a way to prove it without needing to calculate any solutions:
as $sin:mathbb Crightarrowmathbb C$ is entire and non constant, we can apply the Little Picard Theorem and therefore we have that $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$ or $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb Csetminusa$ for one $ainmathbb C$. Let us assume the later. Because $sin$ is an uneven function this would mean that also $-anotinsin(mathbb C)$. This can only be true if $a=0$ (else we would contradict Picard), but we all know that $sin(0)=0$ and therefor $sin(mathbb C)=mathbb C$.
answered 46 mins ago
Hirshy
4,32921336
4,32921336
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
add a comment |Â
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
Nice use of the sledgehammer!
â egreg
42 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
@egreg always fun to use it when (un)necessary ;)
â Hirshy
40 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
$$
sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
$$
So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
$$
sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
$$
So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
$$
sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
$$
So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.
$$
sin (i z + fracpi2) = cosh z \
sin (i z - fracpi2) = - cosh z\
$$
So the image of $fracpi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_geq 1$. Similarly the image of $frac-pi2+imathbbR$ takes care of getting $mathbbR_leq -1$. The image of $mathbbR$ takes care of getting $[-1,1]$ with $sin$ being viewed as a usual $mathbbR to [-1,1]$.
answered 47 mins ago
AHusain
1,914714
1,914714
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Matt is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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1
Do you know the little Picard Theorem?
â Hirshy
51 mins ago