Can an argument be formally valid with sound premises and still be informally fallacious?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Consider the following two assumptions:




  1. Validity Assumption: Assume an argument is valid. It follows all the formal logical rules of inference. The inference contains no formal logical fallacy.


  2. Soundness Assumption: Assume the premises of the argument are sound, verified by a competent subject-matter expert.

Given the soundness assumption, the validity assumption would imply that the conclusion is logically true.



Is it possible for this argument to still be an example of an informal fallacy?



What makes me think this is possible is that establishing the soundness assumption, which I assumed to be true, cannot be done with absolute certainty. The subject-matter expert verifying the premises as true may have made an error of judgment. The validity assumption is more reliable as an assumption than the assumption of soundness since it can be checked with a computer without involving human judgment.



This would make the list of informal logical fallacies valuable. They would be ways to test sound and valid arguments by identifying places where the argument could go wrong.



What I am looking for are examples of such situations that would answer the question in the title as "yes" or an argument that such examples are not possible.



To repeat the question: Can an argument be formally valid with sound premises and still be informally fallacious?










share|improve this question





















  • Doesn't soundness already include validity? And I'm not sure there actually are purely deductive arguments anywhere.
    – rus9384
    59 mins ago










  • Yes, easily. One example is begging the question against an opponent, i.e. using a premise the opponent is known to reject, another is Aristotle's ignoratio elenchi, deriving an irrelevant conclusion, say, for red herring purposes. For general critique of using formal standards of validity in informal contexts, including real life debates, see Toulmin's argumentation theory.
    – Conifold
    18 mins ago















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Consider the following two assumptions:




  1. Validity Assumption: Assume an argument is valid. It follows all the formal logical rules of inference. The inference contains no formal logical fallacy.


  2. Soundness Assumption: Assume the premises of the argument are sound, verified by a competent subject-matter expert.

Given the soundness assumption, the validity assumption would imply that the conclusion is logically true.



Is it possible for this argument to still be an example of an informal fallacy?



What makes me think this is possible is that establishing the soundness assumption, which I assumed to be true, cannot be done with absolute certainty. The subject-matter expert verifying the premises as true may have made an error of judgment. The validity assumption is more reliable as an assumption than the assumption of soundness since it can be checked with a computer without involving human judgment.



This would make the list of informal logical fallacies valuable. They would be ways to test sound and valid arguments by identifying places where the argument could go wrong.



What I am looking for are examples of such situations that would answer the question in the title as "yes" or an argument that such examples are not possible.



To repeat the question: Can an argument be formally valid with sound premises and still be informally fallacious?










share|improve this question





















  • Doesn't soundness already include validity? And I'm not sure there actually are purely deductive arguments anywhere.
    – rus9384
    59 mins ago










  • Yes, easily. One example is begging the question against an opponent, i.e. using a premise the opponent is known to reject, another is Aristotle's ignoratio elenchi, deriving an irrelevant conclusion, say, for red herring purposes. For general critique of using formal standards of validity in informal contexts, including real life debates, see Toulmin's argumentation theory.
    – Conifold
    18 mins ago













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Consider the following two assumptions:




  1. Validity Assumption: Assume an argument is valid. It follows all the formal logical rules of inference. The inference contains no formal logical fallacy.


  2. Soundness Assumption: Assume the premises of the argument are sound, verified by a competent subject-matter expert.

Given the soundness assumption, the validity assumption would imply that the conclusion is logically true.



Is it possible for this argument to still be an example of an informal fallacy?



What makes me think this is possible is that establishing the soundness assumption, which I assumed to be true, cannot be done with absolute certainty. The subject-matter expert verifying the premises as true may have made an error of judgment. The validity assumption is more reliable as an assumption than the assumption of soundness since it can be checked with a computer without involving human judgment.



This would make the list of informal logical fallacies valuable. They would be ways to test sound and valid arguments by identifying places where the argument could go wrong.



What I am looking for are examples of such situations that would answer the question in the title as "yes" or an argument that such examples are not possible.



To repeat the question: Can an argument be formally valid with sound premises and still be informally fallacious?










share|improve this question













Consider the following two assumptions:




  1. Validity Assumption: Assume an argument is valid. It follows all the formal logical rules of inference. The inference contains no formal logical fallacy.


  2. Soundness Assumption: Assume the premises of the argument are sound, verified by a competent subject-matter expert.

Given the soundness assumption, the validity assumption would imply that the conclusion is logically true.



Is it possible for this argument to still be an example of an informal fallacy?



What makes me think this is possible is that establishing the soundness assumption, which I assumed to be true, cannot be done with absolute certainty. The subject-matter expert verifying the premises as true may have made an error of judgment. The validity assumption is more reliable as an assumption than the assumption of soundness since it can be checked with a computer without involving human judgment.



This would make the list of informal logical fallacies valuable. They would be ways to test sound and valid arguments by identifying places where the argument could go wrong.



What I am looking for are examples of such situations that would answer the question in the title as "yes" or an argument that such examples are not possible.



To repeat the question: Can an argument be formally valid with sound premises and still be informally fallacious?







logic fallacies






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 1 hour ago









Frank Hubeny

3,4302834




3,4302834











  • Doesn't soundness already include validity? And I'm not sure there actually are purely deductive arguments anywhere.
    – rus9384
    59 mins ago










  • Yes, easily. One example is begging the question against an opponent, i.e. using a premise the opponent is known to reject, another is Aristotle's ignoratio elenchi, deriving an irrelevant conclusion, say, for red herring purposes. For general critique of using formal standards of validity in informal contexts, including real life debates, see Toulmin's argumentation theory.
    – Conifold
    18 mins ago

















  • Doesn't soundness already include validity? And I'm not sure there actually are purely deductive arguments anywhere.
    – rus9384
    59 mins ago










  • Yes, easily. One example is begging the question against an opponent, i.e. using a premise the opponent is known to reject, another is Aristotle's ignoratio elenchi, deriving an irrelevant conclusion, say, for red herring purposes. For general critique of using formal standards of validity in informal contexts, including real life debates, see Toulmin's argumentation theory.
    – Conifold
    18 mins ago
















Doesn't soundness already include validity? And I'm not sure there actually are purely deductive arguments anywhere.
– rus9384
59 mins ago




Doesn't soundness already include validity? And I'm not sure there actually are purely deductive arguments anywhere.
– rus9384
59 mins ago












Yes, easily. One example is begging the question against an opponent, i.e. using a premise the opponent is known to reject, another is Aristotle's ignoratio elenchi, deriving an irrelevant conclusion, say, for red herring purposes. For general critique of using formal standards of validity in informal contexts, including real life debates, see Toulmin's argumentation theory.
– Conifold
18 mins ago





Yes, easily. One example is begging the question against an opponent, i.e. using a premise the opponent is known to reject, another is Aristotle's ignoratio elenchi, deriving an irrelevant conclusion, say, for red herring purposes. For general critique of using formal standards of validity in informal contexts, including real life debates, see Toulmin's argumentation theory.
– Conifold
18 mins ago











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote













I say yes.



Consider two people who don't know the color of bananas, and are trying to figure it out through an argument. One of them provides the following argument:



Bananas are yellow
Therefore, bananas are yellow



It's clearly valid, and any subject-matter expert would agree with the premise. But, the second person will (rightly!) object that this argument commits the fallacy of circular reasoning/begging the question






share|improve this answer






















  • "any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
    – rus9384
    27 mins ago










  • @rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
    – Bram28
    24 mins ago










Your Answer







StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "265"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: false,
noModals: false,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: null,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);













 

draft saved


draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f55553%2fcan-an-argument-be-formally-valid-with-sound-premises-and-still-be-informally-fa%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest






























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote













I say yes.



Consider two people who don't know the color of bananas, and are trying to figure it out through an argument. One of them provides the following argument:



Bananas are yellow
Therefore, bananas are yellow



It's clearly valid, and any subject-matter expert would agree with the premise. But, the second person will (rightly!) object that this argument commits the fallacy of circular reasoning/begging the question






share|improve this answer






















  • "any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
    – rus9384
    27 mins ago










  • @rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
    – Bram28
    24 mins ago














up vote
2
down vote













I say yes.



Consider two people who don't know the color of bananas, and are trying to figure it out through an argument. One of them provides the following argument:



Bananas are yellow
Therefore, bananas are yellow



It's clearly valid, and any subject-matter expert would agree with the premise. But, the second person will (rightly!) object that this argument commits the fallacy of circular reasoning/begging the question






share|improve this answer






















  • "any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
    – rus9384
    27 mins ago










  • @rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
    – Bram28
    24 mins ago












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









I say yes.



Consider two people who don't know the color of bananas, and are trying to figure it out through an argument. One of them provides the following argument:



Bananas are yellow
Therefore, bananas are yellow



It's clearly valid, and any subject-matter expert would agree with the premise. But, the second person will (rightly!) object that this argument commits the fallacy of circular reasoning/begging the question






share|improve this answer














I say yes.



Consider two people who don't know the color of bananas, and are trying to figure it out through an argument. One of them provides the following argument:



Bananas are yellow
Therefore, bananas are yellow



It's clearly valid, and any subject-matter expert would agree with the premise. But, the second person will (rightly!) object that this argument commits the fallacy of circular reasoning/begging the question







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 24 mins ago

























answered 29 mins ago









Bram28

2,045311




2,045311











  • "any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
    – rus9384
    27 mins ago










  • @rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
    – Bram28
    24 mins ago
















  • "any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
    – rus9384
    27 mins ago










  • @rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
    – Bram28
    24 mins ago















"any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
– rus9384
27 mins ago




"any subject=matter expert would agree with the premise" - debatably, of course. We know there are green bananas.
– rus9384
27 mins ago












@rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
– Bram28
24 mins ago




@rus9384 Ha ha, yes, at my local supermarket :)
– Bram28
24 mins ago

















 

draft saved


draft discarded















































 


draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f55553%2fcan-an-argument-be-formally-valid-with-sound-premises-and-still-be-informally-fa%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest













































































Comments

Popular posts from this blog

What does second last employer means? [closed]

Installing NextGIS Connect into QGIS 3?

One-line joke