Middle Fifths Cantor Set is Borel and Has Measure =?

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I've been working on the following problem; I think I have the answer, I would just like to confirm that there are no gaps in my logic.




Consider the "middle fifths" Cantor set $$mathscrC=leftlbracesum_j=1^inftyfraca_j5^j~:~a_j=0,1,3,mathrmor~4~mathrmfor~each~jrightrbrace.$$ Prove that $mathscrC$ is a Borel set. What is the Lebesgue measure of $mathscrC$?




My Solution: We consider the construction of the above Cantor set as follows: let $C_0=[0,1]$, let $C_1=[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$, and in general, let $C_n$ be the set remaining after removing an open interval of length $1/5$ from the middle of each connected component of $C_n-1$. Then we put $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$.



Let $mathscrB$ be the Borel $sigma$-algebra on $mathbbR$. Then, by definition, $mathscrB$ contains all the open subsets of $mathbbR$. Since $sigma$-algebras are closed under set complements, it follows that $mathscrB$ also contains all the closed subsets of $mathbbR$. Hence, $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$. Moreover, since $sigma$-algebras are closed under countable intersections and $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$, it follows that $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$ is Borel.



We claim that $m(mathscrC)=0$, where $m$ is the Lebesgue measure on $mathbbR$. Indeed, each set $C_n$ is the disjoint union of precisely $2^n$ intervals, each of length $1/5^n$. By the finite additivity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $m(C_n)=2^n(1/5^n)=(2/5)^n$. Also, by the monotonicity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $$m(mathscrC)leq m(C_n)=(2/5)^n.$$ Since the inequality above holds for all $n$, we conclude that $m(mathscrC)=0$.



Does all of this look okay? I wanted to make sure, since I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscrC$ that was given in the problem statement. Thanks in advance for any help!



Edit: After reading up on Fat Cantor Sets, I think my work above is incorrect. Should this Cantor set have positive measure?










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    up vote
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    down vote

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    I've been working on the following problem; I think I have the answer, I would just like to confirm that there are no gaps in my logic.




    Consider the "middle fifths" Cantor set $$mathscrC=leftlbracesum_j=1^inftyfraca_j5^j~:~a_j=0,1,3,mathrmor~4~mathrmfor~each~jrightrbrace.$$ Prove that $mathscrC$ is a Borel set. What is the Lebesgue measure of $mathscrC$?




    My Solution: We consider the construction of the above Cantor set as follows: let $C_0=[0,1]$, let $C_1=[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$, and in general, let $C_n$ be the set remaining after removing an open interval of length $1/5$ from the middle of each connected component of $C_n-1$. Then we put $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$.



    Let $mathscrB$ be the Borel $sigma$-algebra on $mathbbR$. Then, by definition, $mathscrB$ contains all the open subsets of $mathbbR$. Since $sigma$-algebras are closed under set complements, it follows that $mathscrB$ also contains all the closed subsets of $mathbbR$. Hence, $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$. Moreover, since $sigma$-algebras are closed under countable intersections and $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$, it follows that $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$ is Borel.



    We claim that $m(mathscrC)=0$, where $m$ is the Lebesgue measure on $mathbbR$. Indeed, each set $C_n$ is the disjoint union of precisely $2^n$ intervals, each of length $1/5^n$. By the finite additivity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $m(C_n)=2^n(1/5^n)=(2/5)^n$. Also, by the monotonicity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $$m(mathscrC)leq m(C_n)=(2/5)^n.$$ Since the inequality above holds for all $n$, we conclude that $m(mathscrC)=0$.



    Does all of this look okay? I wanted to make sure, since I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscrC$ that was given in the problem statement. Thanks in advance for any help!



    Edit: After reading up on Fat Cantor Sets, I think my work above is incorrect. Should this Cantor set have positive measure?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I've been working on the following problem; I think I have the answer, I would just like to confirm that there are no gaps in my logic.




      Consider the "middle fifths" Cantor set $$mathscrC=leftlbracesum_j=1^inftyfraca_j5^j~:~a_j=0,1,3,mathrmor~4~mathrmfor~each~jrightrbrace.$$ Prove that $mathscrC$ is a Borel set. What is the Lebesgue measure of $mathscrC$?




      My Solution: We consider the construction of the above Cantor set as follows: let $C_0=[0,1]$, let $C_1=[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$, and in general, let $C_n$ be the set remaining after removing an open interval of length $1/5$ from the middle of each connected component of $C_n-1$. Then we put $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$.



      Let $mathscrB$ be the Borel $sigma$-algebra on $mathbbR$. Then, by definition, $mathscrB$ contains all the open subsets of $mathbbR$. Since $sigma$-algebras are closed under set complements, it follows that $mathscrB$ also contains all the closed subsets of $mathbbR$. Hence, $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$. Moreover, since $sigma$-algebras are closed under countable intersections and $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$, it follows that $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$ is Borel.



      We claim that $m(mathscrC)=0$, where $m$ is the Lebesgue measure on $mathbbR$. Indeed, each set $C_n$ is the disjoint union of precisely $2^n$ intervals, each of length $1/5^n$. By the finite additivity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $m(C_n)=2^n(1/5^n)=(2/5)^n$. Also, by the monotonicity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $$m(mathscrC)leq m(C_n)=(2/5)^n.$$ Since the inequality above holds for all $n$, we conclude that $m(mathscrC)=0$.



      Does all of this look okay? I wanted to make sure, since I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscrC$ that was given in the problem statement. Thanks in advance for any help!



      Edit: After reading up on Fat Cantor Sets, I think my work above is incorrect. Should this Cantor set have positive measure?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I've been working on the following problem; I think I have the answer, I would just like to confirm that there are no gaps in my logic.




      Consider the "middle fifths" Cantor set $$mathscrC=leftlbracesum_j=1^inftyfraca_j5^j~:~a_j=0,1,3,mathrmor~4~mathrmfor~each~jrightrbrace.$$ Prove that $mathscrC$ is a Borel set. What is the Lebesgue measure of $mathscrC$?




      My Solution: We consider the construction of the above Cantor set as follows: let $C_0=[0,1]$, let $C_1=[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$, and in general, let $C_n$ be the set remaining after removing an open interval of length $1/5$ from the middle of each connected component of $C_n-1$. Then we put $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$.



      Let $mathscrB$ be the Borel $sigma$-algebra on $mathbbR$. Then, by definition, $mathscrB$ contains all the open subsets of $mathbbR$. Since $sigma$-algebras are closed under set complements, it follows that $mathscrB$ also contains all the closed subsets of $mathbbR$. Hence, $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$. Moreover, since $sigma$-algebras are closed under countable intersections and $C_ninmathscrB$ for each $n$, it follows that $mathscrC=bigcap_n=0^inftyC_n$ is Borel.



      We claim that $m(mathscrC)=0$, where $m$ is the Lebesgue measure on $mathbbR$. Indeed, each set $C_n$ is the disjoint union of precisely $2^n$ intervals, each of length $1/5^n$. By the finite additivity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $m(C_n)=2^n(1/5^n)=(2/5)^n$. Also, by the monotonicity of the Lebesgue measure, we have $$m(mathscrC)leq m(C_n)=(2/5)^n.$$ Since the inequality above holds for all $n$, we conclude that $m(mathscrC)=0$.



      Does all of this look okay? I wanted to make sure, since I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscrC$ that was given in the problem statement. Thanks in advance for any help!



      Edit: After reading up on Fat Cantor Sets, I think my work above is incorrect. Should this Cantor set have positive measure?







      real-analysis measure-theory proof-verification lebesgue-measure cantor-set






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      edited 32 mins ago









      Martin Sleziak

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      asked 1 hour ago









      Sir_Math_Cat

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          2 Answers
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          up vote
          3
          down vote













          $newcommandCmathscr C$



          "I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscr C$ that was given in the problem statement": You used that in showing that $C$ is the same as the $C$ you get by that middle-fifths construction.



          Or you should have! In fact the iterative construction you sketch, removing the middle fifth of each component at each stage, is wrong.



          You start by removing the middle fifth of $[0,1]$, leaving $[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$. That's great - that removes the numbers $sum a_j/5^j$ with $a_1=2$. Now at the next stage you want to remove the numbers with $a_2=2$. To do that you need to remove the middle fifth from each of the four intervals $[0,1/5],[1/5,2/5],[3/5,4/5],[4/5,1]$, which is not the same as removing the middle fifth of each component.



          (Yes, the measure is $0$. The simplest way to see that is to note that at each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$. A "fat Cantor set" requires a different ratio at each step.)






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            The computation of measure is not correct. It turns out that it is equal to $frac23$, because$$mleft(mathscrC^complementright)=frac12sum_n=1^inftyleft(frac25right)^n=fracfrac151-frac25=frac13.$$Note that, at each step, you remove $2^n-1$ intervals whose length is $frac15^n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
              – Sir_Math_Cat
              1 hour ago










            • @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
              – José Carlos Santos
              1 hour ago






            • 1




              Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
              – guy
              1 hour ago










            • Okay, thank you very much!
              – Sir_Math_Cat
              1 hour ago






            • 1




              Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
              – David C. Ullrich
              45 mins ago










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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            up vote
            3
            down vote













            $newcommandCmathscr C$



            "I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscr C$ that was given in the problem statement": You used that in showing that $C$ is the same as the $C$ you get by that middle-fifths construction.



            Or you should have! In fact the iterative construction you sketch, removing the middle fifth of each component at each stage, is wrong.



            You start by removing the middle fifth of $[0,1]$, leaving $[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$. That's great - that removes the numbers $sum a_j/5^j$ with $a_1=2$. Now at the next stage you want to remove the numbers with $a_2=2$. To do that you need to remove the middle fifth from each of the four intervals $[0,1/5],[1/5,2/5],[3/5,4/5],[4/5,1]$, which is not the same as removing the middle fifth of each component.



            (Yes, the measure is $0$. The simplest way to see that is to note that at each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$. A "fat Cantor set" requires a different ratio at each step.)






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              up vote
              3
              down vote













              $newcommandCmathscr C$



              "I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscr C$ that was given in the problem statement": You used that in showing that $C$ is the same as the $C$ you get by that middle-fifths construction.



              Or you should have! In fact the iterative construction you sketch, removing the middle fifth of each component at each stage, is wrong.



              You start by removing the middle fifth of $[0,1]$, leaving $[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$. That's great - that removes the numbers $sum a_j/5^j$ with $a_1=2$. Now at the next stage you want to remove the numbers with $a_2=2$. To do that you need to remove the middle fifth from each of the four intervals $[0,1/5],[1/5,2/5],[3/5,4/5],[4/5,1]$, which is not the same as removing the middle fifth of each component.



              (Yes, the measure is $0$. The simplest way to see that is to note that at each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$. A "fat Cantor set" requires a different ratio at each step.)






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                $newcommandCmathscr C$



                "I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscr C$ that was given in the problem statement": You used that in showing that $C$ is the same as the $C$ you get by that middle-fifths construction.



                Or you should have! In fact the iterative construction you sketch, removing the middle fifth of each component at each stage, is wrong.



                You start by removing the middle fifth of $[0,1]$, leaving $[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$. That's great - that removes the numbers $sum a_j/5^j$ with $a_1=2$. Now at the next stage you want to remove the numbers with $a_2=2$. To do that you need to remove the middle fifth from each of the four intervals $[0,1/5],[1/5,2/5],[3/5,4/5],[4/5,1]$, which is not the same as removing the middle fifth of each component.



                (Yes, the measure is $0$. The simplest way to see that is to note that at each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$. A "fat Cantor set" requires a different ratio at each step.)






                share|cite|improve this answer














                $newcommandCmathscr C$



                "I didn't end up using the original description of $mathscr C$ that was given in the problem statement": You used that in showing that $C$ is the same as the $C$ you get by that middle-fifths construction.



                Or you should have! In fact the iterative construction you sketch, removing the middle fifth of each component at each stage, is wrong.



                You start by removing the middle fifth of $[0,1]$, leaving $[0,2/5]cup[3/5,1]$. That's great - that removes the numbers $sum a_j/5^j$ with $a_1=2$. Now at the next stage you want to remove the numbers with $a_2=2$. To do that you need to remove the middle fifth from each of the four intervals $[0,1/5],[1/5,2/5],[3/5,4/5],[4/5,1]$, which is not the same as removing the middle fifth of each component.



                (Yes, the measure is $0$. The simplest way to see that is to note that at each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$. A "fat Cantor set" requires a different ratio at each step.)







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited 11 mins ago

























                answered 28 mins ago









                David C. Ullrich

                56.6k43788




                56.6k43788




















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    The computation of measure is not correct. It turns out that it is equal to $frac23$, because$$mleft(mathscrC^complementright)=frac12sum_n=1^inftyleft(frac25right)^n=fracfrac151-frac25=frac13.$$Note that, at each step, you remove $2^n-1$ intervals whose length is $frac15^n$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer




















                    • That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago










                    • @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
                      – José Carlos Santos
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
                      – guy
                      1 hour ago










                    • Okay, thank you very much!
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
                      – David C. Ullrich
                      45 mins ago














                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    The computation of measure is not correct. It turns out that it is equal to $frac23$, because$$mleft(mathscrC^complementright)=frac12sum_n=1^inftyleft(frac25right)^n=fracfrac151-frac25=frac13.$$Note that, at each step, you remove $2^n-1$ intervals whose length is $frac15^n$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer




















                    • That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago










                    • @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
                      – José Carlos Santos
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
                      – guy
                      1 hour ago










                    • Okay, thank you very much!
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
                      – David C. Ullrich
                      45 mins ago












                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    The computation of measure is not correct. It turns out that it is equal to $frac23$, because$$mleft(mathscrC^complementright)=frac12sum_n=1^inftyleft(frac25right)^n=fracfrac151-frac25=frac13.$$Note that, at each step, you remove $2^n-1$ intervals whose length is $frac15^n$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    The computation of measure is not correct. It turns out that it is equal to $frac23$, because$$mleft(mathscrC^complementright)=frac12sum_n=1^inftyleft(frac25right)^n=fracfrac151-frac25=frac13.$$Note that, at each step, you remove $2^n-1$ intervals whose length is $frac15^n$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 1 hour ago









                    José Carlos Santos

                    131k17106192




                    131k17106192











                    • That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago










                    • @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
                      – José Carlos Santos
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
                      – guy
                      1 hour ago










                    • Okay, thank you very much!
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
                      – David C. Ullrich
                      45 mins ago
















                    • That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago










                    • @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
                      – José Carlos Santos
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
                      – guy
                      1 hour ago










                    • Okay, thank you very much!
                      – Sir_Math_Cat
                      1 hour ago






                    • 1




                      Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
                      – David C. Ullrich
                      45 mins ago















                    That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
                    – Sir_Math_Cat
                    1 hour ago




                    That makes sense. Thank you for your help! Did my argument to show that $mathscrC$ is Borel look okay?
                    – Sir_Math_Cat
                    1 hour ago












                    @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
                    – José Carlos Santos
                    1 hour ago




                    @Sir_Math_Cat It's just fine.
                    – José Carlos Santos
                    1 hour ago




                    1




                    1




                    Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
                    – guy
                    1 hour ago




                    Quick question, how does the law of large numbers not imply the measure is 0? Unless I’m misreading something, we are basically looking at the probability of never rolling a 2 if we roll a 5 sided die forever.
                    – guy
                    1 hour ago












                    Okay, thank you very much!
                    – Sir_Math_Cat
                    1 hour ago




                    Okay, thank you very much!
                    – Sir_Math_Cat
                    1 hour ago




                    1




                    1




                    Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
                    – David C. Ullrich
                    45 mins ago




                    Or simpler: At each stage the measure gets multiplied by $4/5$.
                    – David C. Ullrich
                    45 mins ago

















                     

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