Difference between Var(Y) and Var(Y|X)?

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What is the difference between $mathrmvar(Y)$ and $mathrmvar(Y|X)$? If $Y = c + beta X$ and $mathrmvar(X)=sigma^2$, won't both come out to be the same, i.e., $beta^2sigma^2$?










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    What is the difference between $mathrmvar(Y)$ and $mathrmvar(Y|X)$? If $Y = c + beta X$ and $mathrmvar(X)=sigma^2$, won't both come out to be the same, i.e., $beta^2sigma^2$?










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      What is the difference between $mathrmvar(Y)$ and $mathrmvar(Y|X)$? If $Y = c + beta X$ and $mathrmvar(X)=sigma^2$, won't both come out to be the same, i.e., $beta^2sigma^2$?










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      What is the difference between $mathrmvar(Y)$ and $mathrmvar(Y|X)$? If $Y = c + beta X$ and $mathrmvar(X)=sigma^2$, won't both come out to be the same, i.e., $beta^2sigma^2$?







      statistics variance






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      edited 37 mins ago









      Math Lover

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      asked 4 hours ago









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          3 Answers
          3






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          up vote
          4
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          accepted










          Note that we always have $E[f(X)|X] = f(X)$. Loosely speaking, given $X$ there is no randomness in $f(X)$, so we expect the conditional variance to be zero.



          Let $f(x) = c+ beta x$.
          begineqnarray
          operatornamevar (f(X)|X) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)|X])^2 | X] \
          &=& E [ (f(X)-f(X))^2 | X] \
          &=& E[0 | X] \
          &=& 0
          endeqnarray

          On the other hand (note that in this case we have $E[f(X)] = f(EX)$).
          begineqnarray
          operatornamevar (f(X)) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)])^2 ] \
          &=& E [ (f(X)-f(EX))^2] \
          &=& E[(beta(X-EX))^2] \
          &=& beta ^2 E[(X-EX)^2] \
          &=& beta^2 operatornamevar X \
          &=& beta^2 sigma^2
          endeqnarray






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            $operatornameVar(Y)=mathbbE(Y-mathbbE(Y))^2$ is a number. Var(Y|X) is the conditional variance of $Y$ given $X$:
            $$
            operatornameVar(Ymid X):=mathbbE[(Y-mathbbE[Ymid X])^2mid X]
            $$

            is a function of the random variable $X$.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























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              2
              down vote













              Note that given the value of $X$, $Y$ ceases to be random (presuming $beta$ and $c$ are constants). Therefore, $$mathrmvar(Y|X) = 0.$$
              On the other hand, if $X$ is not known then $Y$ can take on different values. Therefore, $mathrmvar(Y) neq 0$. In fact, $mathrmvar(Y) = beta^2 mathrmvar(X)=beta^2 sigma^2$.






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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted










                Note that we always have $E[f(X)|X] = f(X)$. Loosely speaking, given $X$ there is no randomness in $f(X)$, so we expect the conditional variance to be zero.



                Let $f(x) = c+ beta x$.
                begineqnarray
                operatornamevar (f(X)|X) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)|X])^2 | X] \
                &=& E [ (f(X)-f(X))^2 | X] \
                &=& E[0 | X] \
                &=& 0
                endeqnarray

                On the other hand (note that in this case we have $E[f(X)] = f(EX)$).
                begineqnarray
                operatornamevar (f(X)) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)])^2 ] \
                &=& E [ (f(X)-f(EX))^2] \
                &=& E[(beta(X-EX))^2] \
                &=& beta ^2 E[(X-EX)^2] \
                &=& beta^2 operatornamevar X \
                &=& beta^2 sigma^2
                endeqnarray






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  up vote
                  4
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  Note that we always have $E[f(X)|X] = f(X)$. Loosely speaking, given $X$ there is no randomness in $f(X)$, so we expect the conditional variance to be zero.



                  Let $f(x) = c+ beta x$.
                  begineqnarray
                  operatornamevar (f(X)|X) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)|X])^2 | X] \
                  &=& E [ (f(X)-f(X))^2 | X] \
                  &=& E[0 | X] \
                  &=& 0
                  endeqnarray

                  On the other hand (note that in this case we have $E[f(X)] = f(EX)$).
                  begineqnarray
                  operatornamevar (f(X)) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)])^2 ] \
                  &=& E [ (f(X)-f(EX))^2] \
                  &=& E[(beta(X-EX))^2] \
                  &=& beta ^2 E[(X-EX)^2] \
                  &=& beta^2 operatornamevar X \
                  &=& beta^2 sigma^2
                  endeqnarray






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    up vote
                    4
                    down vote



                    accepted







                    up vote
                    4
                    down vote



                    accepted






                    Note that we always have $E[f(X)|X] = f(X)$. Loosely speaking, given $X$ there is no randomness in $f(X)$, so we expect the conditional variance to be zero.



                    Let $f(x) = c+ beta x$.
                    begineqnarray
                    operatornamevar (f(X)|X) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)|X])^2 | X] \
                    &=& E [ (f(X)-f(X))^2 | X] \
                    &=& E[0 | X] \
                    &=& 0
                    endeqnarray

                    On the other hand (note that in this case we have $E[f(X)] = f(EX)$).
                    begineqnarray
                    operatornamevar (f(X)) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)])^2 ] \
                    &=& E [ (f(X)-f(EX))^2] \
                    &=& E[(beta(X-EX))^2] \
                    &=& beta ^2 E[(X-EX)^2] \
                    &=& beta^2 operatornamevar X \
                    &=& beta^2 sigma^2
                    endeqnarray






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Note that we always have $E[f(X)|X] = f(X)$. Loosely speaking, given $X$ there is no randomness in $f(X)$, so we expect the conditional variance to be zero.



                    Let $f(x) = c+ beta x$.
                    begineqnarray
                    operatornamevar (f(X)|X) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)|X])^2 | X] \
                    &=& E [ (f(X)-f(X))^2 | X] \
                    &=& E[0 | X] \
                    &=& 0
                    endeqnarray

                    On the other hand (note that in this case we have $E[f(X)] = f(EX)$).
                    begineqnarray
                    operatornamevar (f(X)) &=& E [ (f(X)-E[f(X)])^2 ] \
                    &=& E [ (f(X)-f(EX))^2] \
                    &=& E[(beta(X-EX))^2] \
                    &=& beta ^2 E[(X-EX)^2] \
                    &=& beta^2 operatornamevar X \
                    &=& beta^2 sigma^2
                    endeqnarray







                    share|cite|improve this answer














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                    edited 3 hours ago

























                    answered 3 hours ago









                    copper.hat

                    124k558156




                    124k558156




















                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        $operatornameVar(Y)=mathbbE(Y-mathbbE(Y))^2$ is a number. Var(Y|X) is the conditional variance of $Y$ given $X$:
                        $$
                        operatornameVar(Ymid X):=mathbbE[(Y-mathbbE[Ymid X])^2mid X]
                        $$

                        is a function of the random variable $X$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote













                          $operatornameVar(Y)=mathbbE(Y-mathbbE(Y))^2$ is a number. Var(Y|X) is the conditional variance of $Y$ given $X$:
                          $$
                          operatornameVar(Ymid X):=mathbbE[(Y-mathbbE[Ymid X])^2mid X]
                          $$

                          is a function of the random variable $X$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote









                            $operatornameVar(Y)=mathbbE(Y-mathbbE(Y))^2$ is a number. Var(Y|X) is the conditional variance of $Y$ given $X$:
                            $$
                            operatornameVar(Ymid X):=mathbbE[(Y-mathbbE[Ymid X])^2mid X]
                            $$

                            is a function of the random variable $X$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            $operatornameVar(Y)=mathbbE(Y-mathbbE(Y))^2$ is a number. Var(Y|X) is the conditional variance of $Y$ given $X$:
                            $$
                            operatornameVar(Ymid X):=mathbbE[(Y-mathbbE[Ymid X])^2mid X]
                            $$

                            is a function of the random variable $X$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered 3 hours ago









                            user10354138

                            1,5125




                            1,5125




















                                up vote
                                2
                                down vote













                                Note that given the value of $X$, $Y$ ceases to be random (presuming $beta$ and $c$ are constants). Therefore, $$mathrmvar(Y|X) = 0.$$
                                On the other hand, if $X$ is not known then $Y$ can take on different values. Therefore, $mathrmvar(Y) neq 0$. In fact, $mathrmvar(Y) = beta^2 mathrmvar(X)=beta^2 sigma^2$.






                                share|cite|improve this answer
























                                  up vote
                                  2
                                  down vote













                                  Note that given the value of $X$, $Y$ ceases to be random (presuming $beta$ and $c$ are constants). Therefore, $$mathrmvar(Y|X) = 0.$$
                                  On the other hand, if $X$ is not known then $Y$ can take on different values. Therefore, $mathrmvar(Y) neq 0$. In fact, $mathrmvar(Y) = beta^2 mathrmvar(X)=beta^2 sigma^2$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote









                                    Note that given the value of $X$, $Y$ ceases to be random (presuming $beta$ and $c$ are constants). Therefore, $$mathrmvar(Y|X) = 0.$$
                                    On the other hand, if $X$ is not known then $Y$ can take on different values. Therefore, $mathrmvar(Y) neq 0$. In fact, $mathrmvar(Y) = beta^2 mathrmvar(X)=beta^2 sigma^2$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    Note that given the value of $X$, $Y$ ceases to be random (presuming $beta$ and $c$ are constants). Therefore, $$mathrmvar(Y|X) = 0.$$
                                    On the other hand, if $X$ is not known then $Y$ can take on different values. Therefore, $mathrmvar(Y) neq 0$. In fact, $mathrmvar(Y) = beta^2 mathrmvar(X)=beta^2 sigma^2$.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered 3 hours ago









                                    Math Lover

                                    12.8k21232




                                    12.8k21232




















                                        Ethan Smith is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









                                         

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