Why do all elements commute in centre of an arbitrary finite group?

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The section below is from wikipedia:




The center of G is always a subgroup of G. In particular:



1.
$Z(G)$ contains the identity element of $G$, $e$, because, for all $g$ in $G$, it commutes with $g$, $eg = g = ge$, by definition;



2.
If $x$ and $y$ are in $Z(G)$, then so is $xy$, by associativity: $(xy)g = x(yg) = x(gy) = (xg)y = (gx)y = g(xy)$ for each $g in G$; i.e., $Z(G)$ is closed;



3.
If $x$ is in $Z(G)$, then so is $x^−1$ as, for all $g$ in $G$, $x^−1$ commutes with $g$: $(gx = xg) implies (x^−1gxx^−1 = x^−1xgx^−1) implies (x^−1g = gx^−1)$.
Furthermore, the center of $G$ is always a normal subgroup of $G$, as it is closed under conjugation, as all elements commute.




I do not understand the last bit, why do all elements commute in $Z(G)$?



My attemt was to try to get $ab=ba$:
$a,b in Z(G) implies exists g,ga=ag, gb=bgimplies gagb=agbg$, but this doesnt't seem to lead anywhere useful.










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  • Apply $g=b$.....
    – Randall
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Your "$exists$" should be a "$forall$."
    – Noah Schweber
    1 hour ago














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












The section below is from wikipedia:




The center of G is always a subgroup of G. In particular:



1.
$Z(G)$ contains the identity element of $G$, $e$, because, for all $g$ in $G$, it commutes with $g$, $eg = g = ge$, by definition;



2.
If $x$ and $y$ are in $Z(G)$, then so is $xy$, by associativity: $(xy)g = x(yg) = x(gy) = (xg)y = (gx)y = g(xy)$ for each $g in G$; i.e., $Z(G)$ is closed;



3.
If $x$ is in $Z(G)$, then so is $x^−1$ as, for all $g$ in $G$, $x^−1$ commutes with $g$: $(gx = xg) implies (x^−1gxx^−1 = x^−1xgx^−1) implies (x^−1g = gx^−1)$.
Furthermore, the center of $G$ is always a normal subgroup of $G$, as it is closed under conjugation, as all elements commute.




I do not understand the last bit, why do all elements commute in $Z(G)$?



My attemt was to try to get $ab=ba$:
$a,b in Z(G) implies exists g,ga=ag, gb=bgimplies gagb=agbg$, but this doesnt't seem to lead anywhere useful.










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New contributor




zabop is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • Apply $g=b$.....
    – Randall
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Your "$exists$" should be a "$forall$."
    – Noah Schweber
    1 hour ago












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











The section below is from wikipedia:




The center of G is always a subgroup of G. In particular:



1.
$Z(G)$ contains the identity element of $G$, $e$, because, for all $g$ in $G$, it commutes with $g$, $eg = g = ge$, by definition;



2.
If $x$ and $y$ are in $Z(G)$, then so is $xy$, by associativity: $(xy)g = x(yg) = x(gy) = (xg)y = (gx)y = g(xy)$ for each $g in G$; i.e., $Z(G)$ is closed;



3.
If $x$ is in $Z(G)$, then so is $x^−1$ as, for all $g$ in $G$, $x^−1$ commutes with $g$: $(gx = xg) implies (x^−1gxx^−1 = x^−1xgx^−1) implies (x^−1g = gx^−1)$.
Furthermore, the center of $G$ is always a normal subgroup of $G$, as it is closed under conjugation, as all elements commute.




I do not understand the last bit, why do all elements commute in $Z(G)$?



My attemt was to try to get $ab=ba$:
$a,b in Z(G) implies exists g,ga=ag, gb=bgimplies gagb=agbg$, but this doesnt't seem to lead anywhere useful.










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




zabop is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











The section below is from wikipedia:




The center of G is always a subgroup of G. In particular:



1.
$Z(G)$ contains the identity element of $G$, $e$, because, for all $g$ in $G$, it commutes with $g$, $eg = g = ge$, by definition;



2.
If $x$ and $y$ are in $Z(G)$, then so is $xy$, by associativity: $(xy)g = x(yg) = x(gy) = (xg)y = (gx)y = g(xy)$ for each $g in G$; i.e., $Z(G)$ is closed;



3.
If $x$ is in $Z(G)$, then so is $x^−1$ as, for all $g$ in $G$, $x^−1$ commutes with $g$: $(gx = xg) implies (x^−1gxx^−1 = x^−1xgx^−1) implies (x^−1g = gx^−1)$.
Furthermore, the center of $G$ is always a normal subgroup of $G$, as it is closed under conjugation, as all elements commute.




I do not understand the last bit, why do all elements commute in $Z(G)$?



My attemt was to try to get $ab=ba$:
$a,b in Z(G) implies exists g,ga=ag, gb=bgimplies gagb=agbg$, but this doesnt't seem to lead anywhere useful.







abstract-algebra group-theory proof-writing finite-groups






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  • Apply $g=b$.....
    – Randall
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Your "$exists$" should be a "$forall$."
    – Noah Schweber
    1 hour ago
















  • Apply $g=b$.....
    – Randall
    1 hour ago






  • 2




    Your "$exists$" should be a "$forall$."
    – Noah Schweber
    1 hour ago















Apply $g=b$.....
– Randall
1 hour ago




Apply $g=b$.....
– Randall
1 hour ago




2




2




Your "$exists$" should be a "$forall$."
– Noah Schweber
1 hour ago




Your "$exists$" should be a "$forall$."
– Noah Schweber
1 hour ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
6
down vote



accepted










The elements in the centre of a group, by definition, commute with all elements of the group $G$. Therefore they certainly commute with eachother.



Specifically, $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$. If you have $a,b in Z(G)$, then putting $a$ and $b$ into the definition above gives you what you want, right?






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
    – zabop
    1 hour ago










  • Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
    – zabop
    1 hour ago






  • 1




    If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
    – Matt
    1 hour ago







  • 1




    Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
    – Matt
    1 hour ago

















up vote
0
down vote













Refer to @Matt's answer. The key step helping me to understand both the Q and that answer:



Two group elements $g_1, g_2 in G$ are conjugate to each other ($g_1 sim g_2$) if there exists any group element $g in G$ s.t.



$g_2 = gg_1g^−1$.



Now, if $g_1$ on its own conjugacy class $gg_1g^−1$ has always has to give $g_1$ for any $g$ because if it does not, then $g_1$ would be in the same conjugacy class as the result of $gg_1g^−1$, so for any $g$, we have $gg_1=g_1g$, if $g_1$ forms its own conjugacy class.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    up vote
    6
    down vote



    accepted










    The elements in the centre of a group, by definition, commute with all elements of the group $G$. Therefore they certainly commute with eachother.



    Specifically, $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$. If you have $a,b in Z(G)$, then putting $a$ and $b$ into the definition above gives you what you want, right?






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
      – zabop
      1 hour ago










    • Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
      – zabop
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago







    • 1




      Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago














    up vote
    6
    down vote



    accepted










    The elements in the centre of a group, by definition, commute with all elements of the group $G$. Therefore they certainly commute with eachother.



    Specifically, $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$. If you have $a,b in Z(G)$, then putting $a$ and $b$ into the definition above gives you what you want, right?






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
      – zabop
      1 hour ago










    • Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
      – zabop
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago







    • 1




      Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago












    up vote
    6
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    6
    down vote



    accepted






    The elements in the centre of a group, by definition, commute with all elements of the group $G$. Therefore they certainly commute with eachother.



    Specifically, $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$. If you have $a,b in Z(G)$, then putting $a$ and $b$ into the definition above gives you what you want, right?






    share|cite|improve this answer












    The elements in the centre of a group, by definition, commute with all elements of the group $G$. Therefore they certainly commute with eachother.



    Specifically, $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$. If you have $a,b in Z(G)$, then putting $a$ and $b$ into the definition above gives you what you want, right?







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 1 hour ago









    Matt

    2,391719




    2,391719











    • In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
      – zabop
      1 hour ago










    • Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
      – zabop
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago







    • 1




      Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago
















    • In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
      – zabop
      1 hour ago










    • Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
      – zabop
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago







    • 1




      Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
      – Matt
      1 hour ago















    In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
    – zabop
    1 hour ago




    In my notes I have this: centre $Z$ is defined to be the set of elements which each form their own conjugacy class. From here, is it obvious that they commute with each other? I think what this means that there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute. Why can we say that "they commute with all", not "at least one"?
    – zabop
    1 hour ago












    Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
    – zabop
    1 hour ago




    Looking at your edit... I dont get why is it $Z(G) := zg = gz ; forall g in G$ and not $Z(G) := zg = gz ; exists g in G$
    – zabop
    1 hour ago




    1




    1




    If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
    – Matt
    1 hour ago





    If an element $x in G$ forms its own conjugacy class, then you have that $ g in G = x$. In particular, $gxg^-1 = x ; forall g in G$. Thus, if $x in Z(G)$, $gx = xg$ for all $g in G$. My alternative definition then drops out, and things follow. Your assertion that "there is at least one element in $G$ with which they commute" is not quite correct, although it is understandable why you're confused. I think the definition which I give above of the centre of a group is a little easier for less experienced people to understand.
    – Matt
    1 hour ago





    1




    1




    Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
    – Matt
    1 hour ago




    Additionally: It is worth you knowing that not only does your definition imply mine, but mine implies yours. They're equivalent. I've given you one implication, and you should see if you can get the reverse implication too.
    – Matt
    1 hour ago










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Refer to @Matt's answer. The key step helping me to understand both the Q and that answer:



    Two group elements $g_1, g_2 in G$ are conjugate to each other ($g_1 sim g_2$) if there exists any group element $g in G$ s.t.



    $g_2 = gg_1g^−1$.



    Now, if $g_1$ on its own conjugacy class $gg_1g^−1$ has always has to give $g_1$ for any $g$ because if it does not, then $g_1$ would be in the same conjugacy class as the result of $gg_1g^−1$, so for any $g$, we have $gg_1=g_1g$, if $g_1$ forms its own conjugacy class.






    share|cite|improve this answer








    New contributor




    zabop is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Refer to @Matt's answer. The key step helping me to understand both the Q and that answer:



      Two group elements $g_1, g_2 in G$ are conjugate to each other ($g_1 sim g_2$) if there exists any group element $g in G$ s.t.



      $g_2 = gg_1g^−1$.



      Now, if $g_1$ on its own conjugacy class $gg_1g^−1$ has always has to give $g_1$ for any $g$ because if it does not, then $g_1$ would be in the same conjugacy class as the result of $gg_1g^−1$, so for any $g$, we have $gg_1=g_1g$, if $g_1$ forms its own conjugacy class.






      share|cite|improve this answer








      New contributor




      zabop is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.



















        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Refer to @Matt's answer. The key step helping me to understand both the Q and that answer:



        Two group elements $g_1, g_2 in G$ are conjugate to each other ($g_1 sim g_2$) if there exists any group element $g in G$ s.t.



        $g_2 = gg_1g^−1$.



        Now, if $g_1$ on its own conjugacy class $gg_1g^−1$ has always has to give $g_1$ for any $g$ because if it does not, then $g_1$ would be in the same conjugacy class as the result of $gg_1g^−1$, so for any $g$, we have $gg_1=g_1g$, if $g_1$ forms its own conjugacy class.






        share|cite|improve this answer








        New contributor




        zabop is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.









        Refer to @Matt's answer. The key step helping me to understand both the Q and that answer:



        Two group elements $g_1, g_2 in G$ are conjugate to each other ($g_1 sim g_2$) if there exists any group element $g in G$ s.t.



        $g_2 = gg_1g^−1$.



        Now, if $g_1$ on its own conjugacy class $gg_1g^−1$ has always has to give $g_1$ for any $g$ because if it does not, then $g_1$ would be in the same conjugacy class as the result of $gg_1g^−1$, so for any $g$, we have $gg_1=g_1g$, if $g_1$ forms its own conjugacy class.







        share|cite|improve this answer








        New contributor




        zabop is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.









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        answered 52 mins ago









        zabop

        1303




        1303




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