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Why is “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani†transliterated with a Chi in Matthew and Mark?
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In Matthew 27:46 (Mark 15:34), Jesus says "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani (ÃαβαÇθανί)", which is translated "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?".
Why is this supposedly Aramaic word transliterated into Greek as ÃαβαÇθανί, with a Chi (Ç), rather than as Ãαβακθανι with a Kappa (κ)?
The Aramaic word is said to be "שְ×Âבַק" ("to leave, depart; abandon; permit" - Daniel 4:23, Ezra 6:7). Is there any other example of the Hebrew letter Qoph (ק) being transliterated into Greek which could support this convention?
When I read it, it suggests the Hebrew "שיבח שִ×Âבֵּחַ" ("to praise"), with a Heth, (presumably?) cognate with Arabic سَبَØÂَ "to swim, to float; to praise, to glorify". About the Tasbih it is said "The phrase often has the connotation of praising God for his total perfection". So Jesus could be asking why he was praised, glorified, or perfected. Not that this makes sense, because in the aforementioned New Testament verses it is later translated as the Greek εγκαÄÎÂλιÀÎÂÂ, meaning "abandoned"; obviously the listeners in the crowd heard it as a different word. I guess I'm just curious about the choice of transliteration.
greek hebrew transliteration
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Metamorphic
1866
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In Matthew 27:46 (Mark 15:34), Jesus says "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani (ÃαβαÇθανί)", which is translated "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?".
Why is this supposedly Aramaic word transliterated into Greek as ÃαβαÇθανί, with a Chi (Ç), rather than as Ãαβακθανι with a Kappa (κ)?
The Aramaic word is said to be "שְ×Âבַק" ("to leave, depart; abandon; permit" - Daniel 4:23, Ezra 6:7). Is there any other example of the Hebrew letter Qoph (ק) being transliterated into Greek which could support this convention?
When I read it, it suggests the Hebrew "שיבח שִ×Âבֵּחַ" ("to praise"), with a Heth, (presumably?) cognate with Arabic سَبَØÂَ "to swim, to float; to praise, to glorify". About the Tasbih it is said "The phrase often has the connotation of praising God for his total perfection". So Jesus could be asking why he was praised, glorified, or perfected. Not that this makes sense, because in the aforementioned New Testament verses it is later translated as the Greek εγκαÄÎÂλιÀÎÂÂ, meaning "abandoned"; obviously the listeners in the crowd heard it as a different word. I guess I'm just curious about the choice of transliteration.
greek hebrew transliteration
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
I've never looked up the Aramaic root and had always supposed (from the English transliteration of the Greek) that it ended in כ. I'm very surprised to find that it is ק.
– Colin Fine
15 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
In Matthew 27:46 (Mark 15:34), Jesus says "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani (ÃαβαÇθανί)", which is translated "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?".
Why is this supposedly Aramaic word transliterated into Greek as ÃαβαÇθανί, with a Chi (Ç), rather than as Ãαβακθανι with a Kappa (κ)?
The Aramaic word is said to be "שְ×Âבַק" ("to leave, depart; abandon; permit" - Daniel 4:23, Ezra 6:7). Is there any other example of the Hebrew letter Qoph (ק) being transliterated into Greek which could support this convention?
When I read it, it suggests the Hebrew "שיבח שִ×Âבֵּחַ" ("to praise"), with a Heth, (presumably?) cognate with Arabic سَبَØÂَ "to swim, to float; to praise, to glorify". About the Tasbih it is said "The phrase often has the connotation of praising God for his total perfection". So Jesus could be asking why he was praised, glorified, or perfected. Not that this makes sense, because in the aforementioned New Testament verses it is later translated as the Greek εγκαÄÎÂλιÀÎÂÂ, meaning "abandoned"; obviously the listeners in the crowd heard it as a different word. I guess I'm just curious about the choice of transliteration.
greek hebrew transliteration
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
In Matthew 27:46 (Mark 15:34), Jesus says "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani (ÃαβαÇθανί)", which is translated "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?".
Why is this supposedly Aramaic word transliterated into Greek as ÃαβαÇθανί, with a Chi (Ç), rather than as Ãαβακθανι with a Kappa (κ)?
The Aramaic word is said to be "שְ×Âבַק" ("to leave, depart; abandon; permit" - Daniel 4:23, Ezra 6:7). Is there any other example of the Hebrew letter Qoph (ק) being transliterated into Greek which could support this convention?
When I read it, it suggests the Hebrew "שיבח שִ×Âבֵּחַ" ("to praise"), with a Heth, (presumably?) cognate with Arabic سَبَØÂَ "to swim, to float; to praise, to glorify". About the Tasbih it is said "The phrase often has the connotation of praising God for his total perfection". So Jesus could be asking why he was praised, glorified, or perfected. Not that this makes sense, because in the aforementioned New Testament verses it is later translated as the Greek εγκαÄÎÂλιÀÎÂÂ, meaning "abandoned"; obviously the listeners in the crowd heard it as a different word. I guess I'm just curious about the choice of transliteration.
greek hebrew transliteration
greek hebrew transliteration
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
asked 5 hours ago
Metamorphic
1866
1866
I've never looked up the Aramaic root and had always supposed (from the English transliteration of the Greek) that it ended in כ. I'm very surprised to find that it is ק.
– Colin Fine
15 mins ago
add a comment |Â
I've never looked up the Aramaic root and had always supposed (from the English transliteration of the Greek) that it ended in כ. I'm very surprised to find that it is ק.
– Colin Fine
15 mins ago
I've never looked up the Aramaic root and had always supposed (from the English transliteration of the Greek) that it ended in כ. I'm very surprised to find that it is ק.
– Colin Fine
15 mins ago
I've never looked up the Aramaic root and had always supposed (from the English transliteration of the Greek) that it ended in כ. I'm very surprised to find that it is ק.
– Colin Fine
15 mins ago
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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The Aramaic word שבקתני would probably have been pronounced /ʃabaqtani/. Usually, as you note, the /q/ of Aramaic is transliterated as κ, so Ãαβακθανι /sabaktÊ°ani/ would be expected. However, in Greek, the cluster Çθ was pronounced /ktÊ°/, so the spelling ÃαβαÇθανι is only an orthographic convention for the same pronunciation /sabaktÊ°ani/ by putting two aspirated letters next to each other.
Your connection to the Arabic word سَبَØÂَ is problematic, because Ç is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew ח only when it was pronounced /x/, not /ħ/. The Arabic cognate sound is written Ø® /x/, not Ø /ħ/. Furthermore, the root שבח in Aramaic is used in the pa''el form, so we should expect gemination. The proper Greek transliteration of שבחתני would probably be something like Ãαββαθανι.
answered 2 hours ago
b a
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
The Aramaic word שבקתני would probably have been pronounced /ʃabaqtani/. Usually, as you note, the /q/ of Aramaic is transliterated as κ, so Ãαβακθανι /sabaktÊ°ani/ would be expected. However, in Greek, the cluster Çθ was pronounced /ktÊ°/, so the spelling ÃαβαÇθανι is only an orthographic convention for the same pronunciation /sabaktÊ°ani/ by putting two aspirated letters next to each other.
Your connection to the Arabic word سَبَØÂَ is problematic, because Ç is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew ח only when it was pronounced /x/, not /ħ/. The Arabic cognate sound is written Ø® /x/, not Ø /ħ/. Furthermore, the root שבח in Aramaic is used in the pa''el form, so we should expect gemination. The proper Greek transliteration of שבחתני would probably be something like Ãαββαθανι.
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
The Aramaic word שבקתני would probably have been pronounced /ʃabaqtani/. Usually, as you note, the /q/ of Aramaic is transliterated as κ, so Ãαβακθανι /sabaktÊ°ani/ would be expected. However, in Greek, the cluster Çθ was pronounced /ktÊ°/, so the spelling ÃαβαÇθανι is only an orthographic convention for the same pronunciation /sabaktÊ°ani/ by putting two aspirated letters next to each other.
Your connection to the Arabic word سَبَØÂَ is problematic, because Ç is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew ח only when it was pronounced /x/, not /ħ/. The Arabic cognate sound is written Ø® /x/, not Ø /ħ/. Furthermore, the root שבח in Aramaic is used in the pa''el form, so we should expect gemination. The proper Greek transliteration of שבחתני would probably be something like Ãαββαθανι.
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The Aramaic word שבקתני would probably have been pronounced /ʃabaqtani/. Usually, as you note, the /q/ of Aramaic is transliterated as κ, so Ãαβακθανι /sabaktÊ°ani/ would be expected. However, in Greek, the cluster Çθ was pronounced /ktÊ°/, so the spelling ÃαβαÇθανι is only an orthographic convention for the same pronunciation /sabaktÊ°ani/ by putting two aspirated letters next to each other.
Your connection to the Arabic word سَبَØÂَ is problematic, because Ç is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew ח only when it was pronounced /x/, not /ħ/. The Arabic cognate sound is written Ø® /x/, not Ø /ħ/. Furthermore, the root שבח in Aramaic is used in the pa''el form, so we should expect gemination. The proper Greek transliteration of שבחתני would probably be something like Ãαββαθανι.
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
The Aramaic word שבקתני would probably have been pronounced /ʃabaqtani/. Usually, as you note, the /q/ of Aramaic is transliterated as κ, so Ãαβακθανι /sabaktÊ°ani/ would be expected. However, in Greek, the cluster Çθ was pronounced /ktÊ°/, so the spelling ÃαβαÇθανι is only an orthographic convention for the same pronunciation /sabaktÊ°ani/ by putting two aspirated letters next to each other.
Your connection to the Arabic word سَبَØÂَ is problematic, because Ç is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew ח only when it was pronounced /x/, not /ħ/. The Arabic cognate sound is written Ø® /x/, not Ø /ħ/. Furthermore, the root שבח in Aramaic is used in the pa''el form, so we should expect gemination. The proper Greek transliteration of שבחתני would probably be something like Ãαββαθανι.
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
edited 2 hours ago
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
answered 2 hours ago
b a
1,2041023
1,2041023
add a comment |Â
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I've never looked up the Aramaic root and had always supposed (from the English transliteration of the Greek) that it ended in כ. I'm very surprised to find that it is ק.
– Colin Fine
15 mins ago