Meaning of “Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad”

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I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?

---

Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".

meaning-in-context

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edited 7 mins ago

asked 5 hours ago

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10.4k50161296

• 
  
  
  

  
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  The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
  – FumbleFingers
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
  – hobbs
  2 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
  – jpmc26
  5 mins ago
  
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

up vote
3
down vote

favorite

1

I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?

---

Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".

meaning-in-context

share|improve this question

edited 7 mins ago

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
  – FumbleFingers
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
  – hobbs
  2 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
  – jpmc26
  5 mins ago
  
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

up vote
3
down vote

favorite

1

up vote
3
down vote

favorite

1

1

I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?

---

Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".

meaning-in-context

share|improve this question

edited 7 mins ago

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?

---

Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".

meaning-in-context

meaning-in-context

share|improve this question

edited 7 mins ago

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

share|improve this question

edited 7 mins ago

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

share|improve this question

share|improve this question

edited 7 mins ago

edited 7 mins ago

edited 7 mins ago

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

asked 5 hours ago

Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296

10.4k50161296

• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
  – FumbleFingers
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
  – hobbs
  2 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
  – jpmc26
  5 mins ago
  
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
  – FumbleFingers
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
  – hobbs
  2 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
  – jpmc26
  5 mins ago
  
  

  
  
  
  

1

1

The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
– FumbleFingers
4 hours ago

The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
– FumbleFingers
4 hours ago

1

1

FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
– hobbs
2 hours ago

FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
– hobbs
2 hours ago

To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
– jpmc26
5 mins ago

To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
– jpmc26
5 mins ago

add a comment | 

3 Answers
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up vote
4
down vote

Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad

What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.

When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.

In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
  – Alberto Solano
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
  – Lambie
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
  – Conceivable assessment
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
  – Alberto Solano
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  books.google.com/…
  – Tᴚoɯɐuo
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

up vote
3
down vote

The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means

Why must love be so sad?

---

Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.

Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

Why does love have to be so sad? - statement

share|improve this answer

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

add a comment | 

up vote
2
down vote

Why has love got to be so sad?

In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).

to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.

• I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.


• I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
  


• I must go. She must be kidding.

The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:

To have to be something=To have got to be something.

Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.

Please note:

Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

add a comment | 

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3 Answers
3

active

oldest

votes

3 Answers
3

active

oldest

votes

active

oldest

votes

active

oldest

votes

up vote
4
down vote

Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad

What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.

When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.

In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
  – Alberto Solano
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
  – Lambie
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
  – Conceivable assessment
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
  – Alberto Solano
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  books.google.com/…
  – Tᴚoɯɐuo
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

up vote
4
down vote

Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad

What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.

When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.

In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
  – Alberto Solano
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
  – Lambie
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
  – Conceivable assessment
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
  – Alberto Solano
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  books.google.com/…
  – Tᴚoɯɐuo
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

up vote
4
down vote

up vote
4
down vote

Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad

What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.

When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.

In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad

What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.

When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.

In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

share|improve this answer

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

edited 4 hours ago

edited 4 hours ago

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

answered 5 hours ago

Alberto Solano

28216

28216

• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
  – Alberto Solano
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
  – Lambie
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
  – Conceivable assessment
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
  – Alberto Solano
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  books.google.com/…
  – Tᴚoɯɐuo
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
  – Alberto Solano
  5 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
  – Lambie
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
  – Conceivable assessment
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
  – Alberto Solano
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  books.google.com/…
  – Tᴚoɯɐuo
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

2

2

Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
– Alberto Solano
5 hours ago

Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
– Alberto Solano
5 hours ago

[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
– Lambie
4 hours ago

[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
– Lambie
4 hours ago

1

1

I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
– Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago

I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
– Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago

@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
– Alberto Solano
4 hours ago

@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
– Alberto Solano
4 hours ago

books.google.com/…
– Tᴚoɯɐuo
3 hours ago

books.google.com/…
– Tᴚoɯɐuo
3 hours ago

 | 
show 3 more comments

up vote
3
down vote

The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means

Why must love be so sad?

---

Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.

Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

Why does love have to be so sad? - statement

share|improve this answer

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

add a comment | 

up vote
3
down vote

The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means

Why must love be so sad?

---

Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.

Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

Why does love have to be so sad? - statement

share|improve this answer

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

add a comment | 

up vote
3
down vote

up vote
3
down vote

The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means

Why must love be so sad?

---

Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.

Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

Why does love have to be so sad? - statement

share|improve this answer

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means

Why must love be so sad?

---

Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.

Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

Why does love have to be so sad? - statement

share|improve this answer

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

share|improve this answer

share|improve this answer

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

answered 5 hours ago

JavaLatte

37k23884

37k23884

add a comment | 

add a comment | 

up vote
2
down vote

Why has love got to be so sad?

In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).

to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.

• I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.


• I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
  


• I must go. She must be kidding.

The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:

To have to be something=To have got to be something.

Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.

Please note:

Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

add a comment | 

up vote
2
down vote

Why has love got to be so sad?

In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).

to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.

• I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.


• I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
  


• I must go. She must be kidding.

The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:

To have to be something=To have got to be something.

Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.

Please note:

Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.

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edited 1 hour ago

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

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Why has love got to be so sad?

In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).

to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.

• I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.


• I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
  


• I must go. She must be kidding.

The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:

To have to be something=To have got to be something.

Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.

Please note:

Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

Why has love got to be so sad?

In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).

to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.

• I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.


• I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
  


• I must go. She must be kidding.

The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:

To have to be something=To have got to be something.

Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.

Please note:

Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

share|improve this answer

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

edited 1 hour ago

edited 1 hour ago

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

answered 4 hours ago

Lambie

12.5k1331

12.5k1331

add a comment | 

add a comment | 

 

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