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Has an individual ever purchased an entire country?
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At any point in history, has an individual ever purchased an entire country - using their private wealth?
Specifically, I'm looking for any examples of somebody who has purchased an entire already-existing country - not simply buying significant amounts of land, and then founding a new country from it.
Ideally, the person who purchased the country, would then be in charge of its governance. However if no such situation exists, examples of things that come close would be welcome too (such as owning all land and infrastructure - but not directly governing the country).
Has such an event ever happened in history?
economy government
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
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up vote
4
down vote
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At any point in history, has an individual ever purchased an entire country - using their private wealth?
Specifically, I'm looking for any examples of somebody who has purchased an entire already-existing country - not simply buying significant amounts of land, and then founding a new country from it.
Ideally, the person who purchased the country, would then be in charge of its governance. However if no such situation exists, examples of things that come close would be welcome too (such as owning all land and infrastructure - but not directly governing the country).
Has such an event ever happened in history?
economy government
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
4
During the crisis of the third century Romans flung bags of coins over the walls of the Praetorian Guard in an attempt to purchase the country - that probably comes pretty close. Roman politics (and indeed most pre-modern politics) permitted such things.
– Mark C. Wallace♦
14 hours ago
1
I would say there are several instances of foreign rulers buying their right to rule a country from the Romans, Ptolemy Auletes I believe would be one.
– ed.hank
14 hours ago
2
King Leopold II of Belgium tried to personally buy the Philippines, but as an individual had trouble securing the loans he needed. He was king of a Parlimentary democracy, and his parliament (unlike him) was against colonialism.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
2
If you consider 'promises of future investment' as a 'purchase', Leopold II of Belgium convinced the rest of Europe to agree that the Congo was his private property in exchange for promising to keep it open to European investment.
– Giter
14 hours ago
1
@Giter - I thought of that too of course. However, his whole Congo venture was done on the cheap, and he effectively founded the country. All he really paid for in advance was one explorer. So it's not really in the spirit of the question.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
At any point in history, has an individual ever purchased an entire country - using their private wealth?
Specifically, I'm looking for any examples of somebody who has purchased an entire already-existing country - not simply buying significant amounts of land, and then founding a new country from it.
Ideally, the person who purchased the country, would then be in charge of its governance. However if no such situation exists, examples of things that come close would be welcome too (such as owning all land and infrastructure - but not directly governing the country).
Has such an event ever happened in history?
economy government
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
At any point in history, has an individual ever purchased an entire country - using their private wealth?
Specifically, I'm looking for any examples of somebody who has purchased an entire already-existing country - not simply buying significant amounts of land, and then founding a new country from it.
Ideally, the person who purchased the country, would then be in charge of its governance. However if no such situation exists, examples of things that come close would be welcome too (such as owning all land and infrastructure - but not directly governing the country).
Has such an event ever happened in history?
economy government
economy government
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
asked 15 hours ago
Bilkokuya
1212
1212
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Bilkokuya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
4
During the crisis of the third century Romans flung bags of coins over the walls of the Praetorian Guard in an attempt to purchase the country - that probably comes pretty close. Roman politics (and indeed most pre-modern politics) permitted such things.
– Mark C. Wallace♦
14 hours ago
1
I would say there are several instances of foreign rulers buying their right to rule a country from the Romans, Ptolemy Auletes I believe would be one.
– ed.hank
14 hours ago
2
King Leopold II of Belgium tried to personally buy the Philippines, but as an individual had trouble securing the loans he needed. He was king of a Parlimentary democracy, and his parliament (unlike him) was against colonialism.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
2
If you consider 'promises of future investment' as a 'purchase', Leopold II of Belgium convinced the rest of Europe to agree that the Congo was his private property in exchange for promising to keep it open to European investment.
– Giter
14 hours ago
1
@Giter - I thought of that too of course. However, his whole Congo venture was done on the cheap, and he effectively founded the country. All he really paid for in advance was one explorer. So it's not really in the spirit of the question.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
4
During the crisis of the third century Romans flung bags of coins over the walls of the Praetorian Guard in an attempt to purchase the country - that probably comes pretty close. Roman politics (and indeed most pre-modern politics) permitted such things.
– Mark C. Wallace♦
14 hours ago
1
I would say there are several instances of foreign rulers buying their right to rule a country from the Romans, Ptolemy Auletes I believe would be one.
– ed.hank
14 hours ago
2
King Leopold II of Belgium tried to personally buy the Philippines, but as an individual had trouble securing the loans he needed. He was king of a Parlimentary democracy, and his parliament (unlike him) was against colonialism.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
2
If you consider 'promises of future investment' as a 'purchase', Leopold II of Belgium convinced the rest of Europe to agree that the Congo was his private property in exchange for promising to keep it open to European investment.
– Giter
14 hours ago
1
@Giter - I thought of that too of course. However, his whole Congo venture was done on the cheap, and he effectively founded the country. All he really paid for in advance was one explorer. So it's not really in the spirit of the question.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
4
4
During the crisis of the third century Romans flung bags of coins over the walls of the Praetorian Guard in an attempt to purchase the country - that probably comes pretty close. Roman politics (and indeed most pre-modern politics) permitted such things.
– Mark C. Wallace♦
14 hours ago
During the crisis of the third century Romans flung bags of coins over the walls of the Praetorian Guard in an attempt to purchase the country - that probably comes pretty close. Roman politics (and indeed most pre-modern politics) permitted such things.
– Mark C. Wallace♦
14 hours ago
1
1
I would say there are several instances of foreign rulers buying their right to rule a country from the Romans, Ptolemy Auletes I believe would be one.
– ed.hank
14 hours ago
I would say there are several instances of foreign rulers buying their right to rule a country from the Romans, Ptolemy Auletes I believe would be one.
– ed.hank
14 hours ago
2
2
King Leopold II of Belgium tried to personally buy the Philippines, but as an individual had trouble securing the loans he needed. He was king of a Parlimentary democracy, and his parliament (unlike him) was against colonialism.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
King Leopold II of Belgium tried to personally buy the Philippines, but as an individual had trouble securing the loans he needed. He was king of a Parlimentary democracy, and his parliament (unlike him) was against colonialism.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
2
2
If you consider 'promises of future investment' as a 'purchase', Leopold II of Belgium convinced the rest of Europe to agree that the Congo was his private property in exchange for promising to keep it open to European investment.
– Giter
14 hours ago
If you consider 'promises of future investment' as a 'purchase', Leopold II of Belgium convinced the rest of Europe to agree that the Congo was his private property in exchange for promising to keep it open to European investment.
– Giter
14 hours ago
1
1
@Giter - I thought of that too of course. However, his whole Congo venture was done on the cheap, and he effectively founded the country. All he really paid for in advance was one explorer. So it's not really in the spirit of the question.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
@Giter - I thought of that too of course. However, his whole Congo venture was done on the cheap, and he effectively founded the country. All he really paid for in advance was one explorer. So it's not really in the spirit of the question.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
2 Answers
2
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up vote
4
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In 1699, Johann Adam Andreas von Liechtenstein bought Schellenberg and in 1712 the county of Vaduz. The county was operating under feudal principles, thus perhaps might not be considered a country in the modern meaning, but comes close. Schellenberg and Vaduz have been united in 1718, got the status of Fürstentum and were renamed to Liechtenstein, the name it holds since then.
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
In certain sense yes. Didius Julianus purchased the position of the Roman emperor in 193. This position was actually auctioned by Praetorian guards to the highest bidder, Wikipedia article on Didius Julianus contains a short account.
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
In 1699, Johann Adam Andreas von Liechtenstein bought Schellenberg and in 1712 the county of Vaduz. The county was operating under feudal principles, thus perhaps might not be considered a country in the modern meaning, but comes close. Schellenberg and Vaduz have been united in 1718, got the status of Fürstentum and were renamed to Liechtenstein, the name it holds since then.
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
In 1699, Johann Adam Andreas von Liechtenstein bought Schellenberg and in 1712 the county of Vaduz. The county was operating under feudal principles, thus perhaps might not be considered a country in the modern meaning, but comes close. Schellenberg and Vaduz have been united in 1718, got the status of Fürstentum and were renamed to Liechtenstein, the name it holds since then.
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
In 1699, Johann Adam Andreas von Liechtenstein bought Schellenberg and in 1712 the county of Vaduz. The county was operating under feudal principles, thus perhaps might not be considered a country in the modern meaning, but comes close. Schellenberg and Vaduz have been united in 1718, got the status of Fürstentum and were renamed to Liechtenstein, the name it holds since then.
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
In 1699, Johann Adam Andreas von Liechtenstein bought Schellenberg and in 1712 the county of Vaduz. The county was operating under feudal principles, thus perhaps might not be considered a country in the modern meaning, but comes close. Schellenberg and Vaduz have been united in 1718, got the status of Fürstentum and were renamed to Liechtenstein, the name it holds since then.
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
answered 1 hour ago
Radovan GarabÃk
42745
42745
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
Note that Schellenberg at least had imperial immediacy, and thus should be regarded as a sovereign state. The proximate reason for its purchase was that owning territory with imperial immediacy was necessary for the Liechtenstein line to acquire a vote in the Imperial Diet.
– Pieter Geerkens
1 hour ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
In certain sense yes. Didius Julianus purchased the position of the Roman emperor in 193. This position was actually auctioned by Praetorian guards to the highest bidder, Wikipedia article on Didius Julianus contains a short account.
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
In certain sense yes. Didius Julianus purchased the position of the Roman emperor in 193. This position was actually auctioned by Praetorian guards to the highest bidder, Wikipedia article on Didius Julianus contains a short account.
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
In certain sense yes. Didius Julianus purchased the position of the Roman emperor in 193. This position was actually auctioned by Praetorian guards to the highest bidder, Wikipedia article on Didius Julianus contains a short account.
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
In certain sense yes. Didius Julianus purchased the position of the Roman emperor in 193. This position was actually auctioned by Praetorian guards to the highest bidder, Wikipedia article on Didius Julianus contains a short account.
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
answered 4 hours ago
Alex
24.8k14694
24.8k14694
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Bilkokuya is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Bilkokuya is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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4
During the crisis of the third century Romans flung bags of coins over the walls of the Praetorian Guard in an attempt to purchase the country - that probably comes pretty close. Roman politics (and indeed most pre-modern politics) permitted such things.
– Mark C. Wallace♦
14 hours ago
1
I would say there are several instances of foreign rulers buying their right to rule a country from the Romans, Ptolemy Auletes I believe would be one.
– ed.hank
14 hours ago
2
King Leopold II of Belgium tried to personally buy the Philippines, but as an individual had trouble securing the loans he needed. He was king of a Parlimentary democracy, and his parliament (unlike him) was against colonialism.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago
2
If you consider 'promises of future investment' as a 'purchase', Leopold II of Belgium convinced the rest of Europe to agree that the Congo was his private property in exchange for promising to keep it open to European investment.
– Giter
14 hours ago
1
@Giter - I thought of that too of course. However, his whole Congo venture was done on the cheap, and he effectively founded the country. All he really paid for in advance was one explorer. So it's not really in the spirit of the question.
– T.E.D.♦
14 hours ago