Converse of Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem

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Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem states that every bounded sequence has a limit point. But, the converse is not true.



That is, there are some unbounded sequences which have a limit point. In my course book, I found an example for this claim, but it doesn't make sense.



Here's the example give in the book:
The set: 1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ... is unbounded, but has a limit point of 1.
I can't understand how this set has a limit point as 1. According to the book definition of limit point, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence. If I apply it here, then I get only infinity as the limit point. Am I missing something?










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  • Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    – José Carlos Santos
    11 mins ago














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem states that every bounded sequence has a limit point. But, the converse is not true.



That is, there are some unbounded sequences which have a limit point. In my course book, I found an example for this claim, but it doesn't make sense.



Here's the example give in the book:
The set: 1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ... is unbounded, but has a limit point of 1.
I can't understand how this set has a limit point as 1. According to the book definition of limit point, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence. If I apply it here, then I get only infinity as the limit point. Am I missing something?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Sankalp is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.



















  • Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    – José Carlos Santos
    11 mins ago












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem states that every bounded sequence has a limit point. But, the converse is not true.



That is, there are some unbounded sequences which have a limit point. In my course book, I found an example for this claim, but it doesn't make sense.



Here's the example give in the book:
The set: 1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ... is unbounded, but has a limit point of 1.
I can't understand how this set has a limit point as 1. According to the book definition of limit point, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence. If I apply it here, then I get only infinity as the limit point. Am I missing something?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Sankalp is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem states that every bounded sequence has a limit point. But, the converse is not true.



That is, there are some unbounded sequences which have a limit point. In my course book, I found an example for this claim, but it doesn't make sense.



Here's the example give in the book:
The set: 1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ... is unbounded, but has a limit point of 1.
I can't understand how this set has a limit point as 1. According to the book definition of limit point, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence. If I apply it here, then I get only infinity as the limit point. Am I missing something?







real-analysis sequences-and-series limits






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edited 36 mins ago









Eric Wofsey

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Sankalp is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






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Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    – José Carlos Santos
    11 mins ago
















  • Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    – José Carlos Santos
    11 mins ago















Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
11 mins ago




Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
11 mins ago










2 Answers
2






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up vote
2
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accepted










It seems there is some confusion between sets and sequences. In this example, what you have written as "1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ..." is not meant to be a set but rather a sequence $(a_n)$ with $a_0=1,a_1=2,a_2=1,a_3=4,dots$.



In particular, then, when we say a point $x$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$, this means that for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$, there exist infinitely many $ninmathbbN$ such that $a_nin U$. It does not mean there are infinitely many different numbers in the sequence which are in $U$, since these values of $a_n$ for different $n$ might actually be the same. So in this case, since every neighborhood of $1$ contains $1$, it contains $a_0,a_2,a_4,dots$, and so $1$ is a limit point of the sequence.



(In contrast, $1$ is not a limit point of the set $1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, dots=1, 2, 4, 6, dots$ because $(0,2)$ is a neighborhood of $1$ that contains only one element of this set, namely $1$.)






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
    – Sankalp
    33 mins ago










  • Eric, very clear and nice as usual
    – Peter Szilas
    30 mins ago

















up vote
2
down vote













We have



$$a_n = begincases 1, & n text is odd \ n, & n text is evenendcases$$



$1$ appears infinitely often. Hence there is a subsequence that always take value $1$. That subsequence converges to $1$. Hence $1$ is a limit to the subsequence.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
    – Sankalp
    44 mins ago






  • 1




    I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
    – Siong Thye Goh
    40 mins ago










  • The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
    – Siong Thye Goh
    37 mins ago










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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










It seems there is some confusion between sets and sequences. In this example, what you have written as "1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ..." is not meant to be a set but rather a sequence $(a_n)$ with $a_0=1,a_1=2,a_2=1,a_3=4,dots$.



In particular, then, when we say a point $x$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$, this means that for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$, there exist infinitely many $ninmathbbN$ such that $a_nin U$. It does not mean there are infinitely many different numbers in the sequence which are in $U$, since these values of $a_n$ for different $n$ might actually be the same. So in this case, since every neighborhood of $1$ contains $1$, it contains $a_0,a_2,a_4,dots$, and so $1$ is a limit point of the sequence.



(In contrast, $1$ is not a limit point of the set $1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, dots=1, 2, 4, 6, dots$ because $(0,2)$ is a neighborhood of $1$ that contains only one element of this set, namely $1$.)






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
    – Sankalp
    33 mins ago










  • Eric, very clear and nice as usual
    – Peter Szilas
    30 mins ago














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










It seems there is some confusion between sets and sequences. In this example, what you have written as "1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ..." is not meant to be a set but rather a sequence $(a_n)$ with $a_0=1,a_1=2,a_2=1,a_3=4,dots$.



In particular, then, when we say a point $x$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$, this means that for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$, there exist infinitely many $ninmathbbN$ such that $a_nin U$. It does not mean there are infinitely many different numbers in the sequence which are in $U$, since these values of $a_n$ for different $n$ might actually be the same. So in this case, since every neighborhood of $1$ contains $1$, it contains $a_0,a_2,a_4,dots$, and so $1$ is a limit point of the sequence.



(In contrast, $1$ is not a limit point of the set $1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, dots=1, 2, 4, 6, dots$ because $(0,2)$ is a neighborhood of $1$ that contains only one element of this set, namely $1$.)






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
    – Sankalp
    33 mins ago










  • Eric, very clear and nice as usual
    – Peter Szilas
    30 mins ago












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






It seems there is some confusion between sets and sequences. In this example, what you have written as "1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ..." is not meant to be a set but rather a sequence $(a_n)$ with $a_0=1,a_1=2,a_2=1,a_3=4,dots$.



In particular, then, when we say a point $x$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$, this means that for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$, there exist infinitely many $ninmathbbN$ such that $a_nin U$. It does not mean there are infinitely many different numbers in the sequence which are in $U$, since these values of $a_n$ for different $n$ might actually be the same. So in this case, since every neighborhood of $1$ contains $1$, it contains $a_0,a_2,a_4,dots$, and so $1$ is a limit point of the sequence.



(In contrast, $1$ is not a limit point of the set $1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, dots=1, 2, 4, 6, dots$ because $(0,2)$ is a neighborhood of $1$ that contains only one element of this set, namely $1$.)






share|cite|improve this answer












It seems there is some confusion between sets and sequences. In this example, what you have written as "1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, ..." is not meant to be a set but rather a sequence $(a_n)$ with $a_0=1,a_1=2,a_2=1,a_3=4,dots$.



In particular, then, when we say a point $x$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$, this means that for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$, there exist infinitely many $ninmathbbN$ such that $a_nin U$. It does not mean there are infinitely many different numbers in the sequence which are in $U$, since these values of $a_n$ for different $n$ might actually be the same. So in this case, since every neighborhood of $1$ contains $1$, it contains $a_0,a_2,a_4,dots$, and so $1$ is a limit point of the sequence.



(In contrast, $1$ is not a limit point of the set $1, 2, 1, 4, 1, 6, dots=1, 2, 4, 6, dots$ because $(0,2)$ is a neighborhood of $1$ that contains only one element of this set, namely $1$.)







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 37 mins ago









Eric Wofsey

169k12197314




169k12197314











  • Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
    – Sankalp
    33 mins ago










  • Eric, very clear and nice as usual
    – Peter Szilas
    30 mins ago
















  • Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
    – Sankalp
    33 mins ago










  • Eric, very clear and nice as usual
    – Peter Szilas
    30 mins ago















Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
– Sankalp
33 mins ago




Thanks for clearing my confusion! It was indeed between sets and sequences.
– Sankalp
33 mins ago












Eric, very clear and nice as usual
– Peter Szilas
30 mins ago




Eric, very clear and nice as usual
– Peter Szilas
30 mins ago










up vote
2
down vote













We have



$$a_n = begincases 1, & n text is odd \ n, & n text is evenendcases$$



$1$ appears infinitely often. Hence there is a subsequence that always take value $1$. That subsequence converges to $1$. Hence $1$ is a limit to the subsequence.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
    – Sankalp
    44 mins ago






  • 1




    I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
    – Siong Thye Goh
    40 mins ago










  • The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
    – Siong Thye Goh
    37 mins ago














up vote
2
down vote













We have



$$a_n = begincases 1, & n text is odd \ n, & n text is evenendcases$$



$1$ appears infinitely often. Hence there is a subsequence that always take value $1$. That subsequence converges to $1$. Hence $1$ is a limit to the subsequence.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
    – Sankalp
    44 mins ago






  • 1




    I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
    – Siong Thye Goh
    40 mins ago










  • The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
    – Siong Thye Goh
    37 mins ago












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









We have



$$a_n = begincases 1, & n text is odd \ n, & n text is evenendcases$$



$1$ appears infinitely often. Hence there is a subsequence that always take value $1$. That subsequence converges to $1$. Hence $1$ is a limit to the subsequence.






share|cite|improve this answer














We have



$$a_n = begincases 1, & n text is odd \ n, & n text is evenendcases$$



$1$ appears infinitely often. Hence there is a subsequence that always take value $1$. That subsequence converges to $1$. Hence $1$ is a limit to the subsequence.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 41 mins ago

























answered 47 mins ago









Siong Thye Goh

85k1457107




85k1457107











  • But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
    – Sankalp
    44 mins ago






  • 1




    I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
    – Siong Thye Goh
    40 mins ago










  • The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
    – Siong Thye Goh
    37 mins ago
















  • But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
    – Sankalp
    44 mins ago






  • 1




    I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
    – Siong Thye Goh
    40 mins ago










  • The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
    – Siong Thye Goh
    37 mins ago















But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
– Sankalp
44 mins ago




But, according to the limit point definition, 'x' is the limit point of a sequence, if every neighborhood of 'x' has infinitely many elements of the sequence.
– Sankalp
44 mins ago




1




1




I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
– Siong Thye Goh
40 mins ago




I think Bolzano states that every bounded sequence has a convergence subsequence.
– Siong Thye Goh
40 mins ago












The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
– Siong Thye Goh
37 mins ago




The third paragraph of wikipedia might be of interest to you
– Siong Thye Goh
37 mins ago










Sankalp is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









 

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