Double summation with improper integral

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So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx $$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax $$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax $$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^b (frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^infty) = frac1a^b+1$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a $$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1 $$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.










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  • I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    1 hour ago










  • One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    57 mins ago














up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2












So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx $$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax $$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax $$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^b (frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^infty) = frac1a^b+1$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a $$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1 $$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.










share|cite|improve this question





















  • I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    1 hour ago










  • One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    57 mins ago












up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2






2





So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx $$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax $$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax $$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^b (frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^infty) = frac1a^b+1$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a $$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1 $$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.










share|cite|improve this question













So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx $$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax $$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax $$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^b (frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^infty) = frac1a^b+1$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a $$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1 $$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.







integration summation geometric-progressions






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asked 1 hour ago









Tusky

1546




1546











  • I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    1 hour ago










  • One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    57 mins ago
















  • I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    1 hour ago










  • One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    57 mins ago















I think this is the simplest way have you done!
– Nosrati
1 hour ago




I think this is the simplest way have you done!
– Nosrati
1 hour ago












One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
– Winther
57 mins ago




One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
– Winther
57 mins ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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3
down vote













since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
beginalign
&sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
&=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
&= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
&= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
&= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






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    up vote
    2
    down vote













    For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
    $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
    this make it easier.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
      – Winther
      1 hour ago










    • I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
      – Nosrati
      1 hour ago











    • You are not answering my question.
      – Winther
      59 mins ago










    • Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
      – Nosrati
      54 mins ago

















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    The integral is of the Gamma type,



    $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



    Then



    $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



    $$frac12-1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote













      since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
      beginalign
      &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
      &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
      &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
      &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
      &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        3
        down vote













        since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
        beginalign
        &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
        &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
        &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
        &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
        &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
          beginalign
          &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
          &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
          &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
          &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
          &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer














          since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
          beginalign
          &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
          &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
          &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
          &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
          &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 47 mins ago

























          answered 54 mins ago









          Calvin Khor

          9,17521233




          9,17521233




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
              $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
              this make it easier.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
                – Winther
                1 hour ago










              • I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
                – Nosrati
                1 hour ago











              • You are not answering my question.
                – Winther
                59 mins ago










              • Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
                – Nosrati
                54 mins ago














              up vote
              2
              down vote













              For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
              $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
              this make it easier.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
                – Winther
                1 hour ago










              • I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
                – Nosrati
                1 hour ago











              • You are not answering my question.
                – Winther
                59 mins ago










              • Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
                – Nosrati
                54 mins ago












              up vote
              2
              down vote










              up vote
              2
              down vote









              For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
              $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
              this make it easier.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
              $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
              this make it easier.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered 1 hour ago









              Nosrati

              23.3k61952




              23.3k61952











              • And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
                – Winther
                1 hour ago










              • I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
                – Nosrati
                1 hour ago











              • You are not answering my question.
                – Winther
                59 mins ago










              • Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
                – Nosrati
                54 mins ago
















              • And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
                – Winther
                1 hour ago










              • I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
                – Nosrati
                1 hour ago











              • You are not answering my question.
                – Winther
                59 mins ago










              • Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
                – Nosrati
                54 mins ago















              And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
              – Winther
              1 hour ago




              And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
              – Winther
              1 hour ago












              I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
              – Nosrati
              1 hour ago





              I don't think so, you are kidding $$cal L(x^b)=dfracGamma(b+1)s^b+1$$
              – Nosrati
              1 hour ago













              You are not answering my question.
              – Winther
              59 mins ago




              You are not answering my question.
              – Winther
              59 mins ago












              Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
              – Nosrati
              54 mins ago




              Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
              – Nosrati
              54 mins ago










              up vote
              1
              down vote













              The integral is of the Gamma type,



              $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



              Then



              $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



              $$frac12-1.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                The integral is of the Gamma type,



                $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



                Then



                $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



                $$frac12-1.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  The integral is of the Gamma type,



                  $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



                  Then



                  $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



                  $$frac12-1.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  The integral is of the Gamma type,



                  $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



                  Then



                  $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



                  $$frac12-1.$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 27 mins ago









                  Yves Daoust

                  116k667211




                  116k667211



























                       

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