Compactness of a metric space

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1












If a metric space $(X,d)$ is compact then for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. This is because, for any cauchy sequence in $(X,sigma)$ has a convergent subsequence due to fact $(X,sigma)$ is a compact metric space, hence original sequence is convergent. My question is , does the converse also hold ?



That is, let $(X,d)$ be a metric space such that for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. Does this imply $(X,d)$ is compact?










share|cite|improve this question



























    up vote
    5
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    If a metric space $(X,d)$ is compact then for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. This is because, for any cauchy sequence in $(X,sigma)$ has a convergent subsequence due to fact $(X,sigma)$ is a compact metric space, hence original sequence is convergent. My question is , does the converse also hold ?



    That is, let $(X,d)$ be a metric space such that for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. Does this imply $(X,d)$ is compact?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      If a metric space $(X,d)$ is compact then for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. This is because, for any cauchy sequence in $(X,sigma)$ has a convergent subsequence due to fact $(X,sigma)$ is a compact metric space, hence original sequence is convergent. My question is , does the converse also hold ?



      That is, let $(X,d)$ be a metric space such that for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. Does this imply $(X,d)$ is compact?










      share|cite|improve this question















      If a metric space $(X,d)$ is compact then for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. This is because, for any cauchy sequence in $(X,sigma)$ has a convergent subsequence due to fact $(X,sigma)$ is a compact metric space, hence original sequence is convergent. My question is , does the converse also hold ?



      That is, let $(X,d)$ be a metric space such that for every equivalent metric $sigma$, $(X,sigma)$ is complete. Does this imply $(X,d)$ is compact?







      metric-spaces compactness complete-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 1 min ago









      José Carlos Santos

      123k17101186




      123k17101186










      asked 2 hours ago









      UserS

      333




      333




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          4
          down vote













          This is true but not very easy to prove.



          Suppose $X$ is not compact. Without loss of generality assume that the
          original metric $d$ on $X$ is such that $d(x,y)<1$ for all $x,yin X.$ There
          exists a decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets $C_n$ whose
          intersection is empty. Let $$rho (x,y)=sum_n=1^infty frac1%
          2^nd_n(x,y)$$
          where $$d_n(x,y)=leftvert
          d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert +min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y).$$
          We
          claim that $rho $ is a metric on $X$ which is equivalent to $d$ and that $%
          (X,rho )$
          is not complete. Note that $d_n(x,y)leq 2$ for all $x,yin X.$
          If $x$ and $y$ $in C_k$ then $x$ and $y$ $in C_n$ for $1leq nleq k$
          and hence $rho (x,y)leq sum_n=k+1^infty frac22^n=%
          frac12^k$
          . Thus, the diameter of $C_k$ in $(X,rho )$ does not
          exceed $frac12^k$. Once we prove that $rho $ is a metric equivalent
          to $d$ it follows that $rho $ is not complete because $C_n$ is a
          decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets whose intersection is empty.



          Assuming (for the time being) that $d_n$ satisfies triangle inequality it
          follows easily that $rho $ is a metric: if $rho (x,y)=0$ then $%
          d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)$
          for each $n$ and $min
          d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)=0$
          for each $n$. If $d(x,y)neq 0$ it
          follows that $d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)=0$ for each $n$ which implies that $x$
          and $y$ belong to each $C_n$ contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $rho $
          is a metric. Also $rho (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ as $jrightarrow infty $
          implies $leftvert d(x_j,C_n)-d(x,C_n)rightvert rightarrow 0$ and $%
          min d(x_j,C_n),d(x,C_n)d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
          as $jrightarrow
          infty $
          for each $n$. There is at least one integer $k$ such that $xnotin
          C_k$
          and we conclude that $d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$. Conversely, suppose $%
          d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
          . Then $d_n(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ for each $n$
          and the series defining $rho $ is uniformly convergent, so $rho
          (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
          . It remains only to show that $d_n$ satisfies
          triangle inequality for each $n$ . We have to show that $$leftvert
          d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert$$
          $$+min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)$$



          $$leq leftvert d(x,C_n)-d(z,C_n)rightvert +min
          d(x,C_n),d(z,C_n)d(x,z)$$
          $$+leftvert d(z,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert
          +min d(z,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(z,y)$$
          for all $x,y,z.$ Let $%
          r_1=d(x,C_n),r_2=d(y,C_n),r_3=d(z,C_n)$
          . We consider six cases
          depending on the way the numbers $r_1,r_2,r_3$ are ordered. It turns
          out that the proof is easy when $r_1$ or $r_2$ is the smallest of the
          three. We give the proof for the case $r_3leq r_1leq r_2$. (The case
          $r_3leq r_2leq r_1$ is similar). We have to show that



          $$r_2-r_1+r_1d(x,y)leq r_1-r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_2-r_3+r_3d(z,y)$$
          which says $$r_1d(x,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$ Since $d$
          satisfies trangle inequality it suffices to show that $$%
          r_1d(x,z)+r_1d(z,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$
          But this
          last inequality is equivalent to $$(r_1-r_3)[d(x,z)+d(z,y)]leq
          2r_1-2r_3.$$
          This is true because $d(x,z)+d(z,y)leq 1+1=2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            1 hour ago

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Here is an easier proof. Assume $(X,d)$ is not compact. Let $S$ be the one-point compactification of $X$. By the metrization theorems, $S$ is metrizable. Let $rho$ be such a metrization of $S$ and let $sigma$ be the restriction of $rho$ to $X$. Then $(X,sigma)$ is clearly not complete, since there exists a sequence in $X$ that converges (in $(S,rho)$) to the unique point in $Ssetminus X$. This completes the proof.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            3 mins ago

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Nice question. Yes, it implies that $(X,d)$ is compact. In fact, suppose that $(X,d)$ is not compact. Then there is a sequence $(F_n)_ninmathbb N$ of closed subspaces of $X$ such that $bigcap_ninmathbb NF_n=emptyset$. For such a sequence, define the distance$$sigma(x,y)=sum_n=1^inftyfracbigllvert d (x,F_n)-d(y,F_n)bigrrvert+minbigld(x,F_n),d(y,F_n)bigrtimes d(x,y)2^n.$$It can be proved (see Ryszard Engelking's General Topology, section 4.3) that:




          • $sigma$ is a distance equivalent to $d$;


          • $(X,sigma)$ is not complete.





          share|cite|improve this answer






















            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );













             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2925031%2fcompactness-of-a-metric-space%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes








            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            4
            down vote













            This is true but not very easy to prove.



            Suppose $X$ is not compact. Without loss of generality assume that the
            original metric $d$ on $X$ is such that $d(x,y)<1$ for all $x,yin X.$ There
            exists a decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets $C_n$ whose
            intersection is empty. Let $$rho (x,y)=sum_n=1^infty frac1%
            2^nd_n(x,y)$$
            where $$d_n(x,y)=leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert +min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y).$$
            We
            claim that $rho $ is a metric on $X$ which is equivalent to $d$ and that $%
            (X,rho )$
            is not complete. Note that $d_n(x,y)leq 2$ for all $x,yin X.$
            If $x$ and $y$ $in C_k$ then $x$ and $y$ $in C_n$ for $1leq nleq k$
            and hence $rho (x,y)leq sum_n=k+1^infty frac22^n=%
            frac12^k$
            . Thus, the diameter of $C_k$ in $(X,rho )$ does not
            exceed $frac12^k$. Once we prove that $rho $ is a metric equivalent
            to $d$ it follows that $rho $ is not complete because $C_n$ is a
            decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets whose intersection is empty.



            Assuming (for the time being) that $d_n$ satisfies triangle inequality it
            follows easily that $rho $ is a metric: if $rho (x,y)=0$ then $%
            d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)$
            for each $n$ and $min
            d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)=0$
            for each $n$. If $d(x,y)neq 0$ it
            follows that $d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)=0$ for each $n$ which implies that $x$
            and $y$ belong to each $C_n$ contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $rho $
            is a metric. Also $rho (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ as $jrightarrow infty $
            implies $leftvert d(x_j,C_n)-d(x,C_n)rightvert rightarrow 0$ and $%
            min d(x_j,C_n),d(x,C_n)d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            as $jrightarrow
            infty $
            for each $n$. There is at least one integer $k$ such that $xnotin
            C_k$
            and we conclude that $d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$. Conversely, suppose $%
            d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . Then $d_n(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ for each $n$
            and the series defining $rho $ is uniformly convergent, so $rho
            (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . It remains only to show that $d_n$ satisfies
            triangle inequality for each $n$ . We have to show that $$leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert$$
            $$+min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)$$



            $$leq leftvert d(x,C_n)-d(z,C_n)rightvert +min
            d(x,C_n),d(z,C_n)d(x,z)$$
            $$+leftvert d(z,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert
            +min d(z,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(z,y)$$
            for all $x,y,z.$ Let $%
            r_1=d(x,C_n),r_2=d(y,C_n),r_3=d(z,C_n)$
            . We consider six cases
            depending on the way the numbers $r_1,r_2,r_3$ are ordered. It turns
            out that the proof is easy when $r_1$ or $r_2$ is the smallest of the
            three. We give the proof for the case $r_3leq r_1leq r_2$. (The case
            $r_3leq r_2leq r_1$ is similar). We have to show that



            $$r_2-r_1+r_1d(x,y)leq r_1-r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_2-r_3+r_3d(z,y)$$
            which says $$r_1d(x,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$ Since $d$
            satisfies trangle inequality it suffices to show that $$%
            r_1d(x,z)+r_1d(z,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$
            But this
            last inequality is equivalent to $$(r_1-r_3)[d(x,z)+d(z,y)]leq
            2r_1-2r_3.$$
            This is true because $d(x,z)+d(z,y)leq 1+1=2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              1 hour ago














            up vote
            4
            down vote













            This is true but not very easy to prove.



            Suppose $X$ is not compact. Without loss of generality assume that the
            original metric $d$ on $X$ is such that $d(x,y)<1$ for all $x,yin X.$ There
            exists a decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets $C_n$ whose
            intersection is empty. Let $$rho (x,y)=sum_n=1^infty frac1%
            2^nd_n(x,y)$$
            where $$d_n(x,y)=leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert +min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y).$$
            We
            claim that $rho $ is a metric on $X$ which is equivalent to $d$ and that $%
            (X,rho )$
            is not complete. Note that $d_n(x,y)leq 2$ for all $x,yin X.$
            If $x$ and $y$ $in C_k$ then $x$ and $y$ $in C_n$ for $1leq nleq k$
            and hence $rho (x,y)leq sum_n=k+1^infty frac22^n=%
            frac12^k$
            . Thus, the diameter of $C_k$ in $(X,rho )$ does not
            exceed $frac12^k$. Once we prove that $rho $ is a metric equivalent
            to $d$ it follows that $rho $ is not complete because $C_n$ is a
            decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets whose intersection is empty.



            Assuming (for the time being) that $d_n$ satisfies triangle inequality it
            follows easily that $rho $ is a metric: if $rho (x,y)=0$ then $%
            d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)$
            for each $n$ and $min
            d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)=0$
            for each $n$. If $d(x,y)neq 0$ it
            follows that $d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)=0$ for each $n$ which implies that $x$
            and $y$ belong to each $C_n$ contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $rho $
            is a metric. Also $rho (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ as $jrightarrow infty $
            implies $leftvert d(x_j,C_n)-d(x,C_n)rightvert rightarrow 0$ and $%
            min d(x_j,C_n),d(x,C_n)d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            as $jrightarrow
            infty $
            for each $n$. There is at least one integer $k$ such that $xnotin
            C_k$
            and we conclude that $d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$. Conversely, suppose $%
            d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . Then $d_n(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ for each $n$
            and the series defining $rho $ is uniformly convergent, so $rho
            (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . It remains only to show that $d_n$ satisfies
            triangle inequality for each $n$ . We have to show that $$leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert$$
            $$+min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)$$



            $$leq leftvert d(x,C_n)-d(z,C_n)rightvert +min
            d(x,C_n),d(z,C_n)d(x,z)$$
            $$+leftvert d(z,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert
            +min d(z,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(z,y)$$
            for all $x,y,z.$ Let $%
            r_1=d(x,C_n),r_2=d(y,C_n),r_3=d(z,C_n)$
            . We consider six cases
            depending on the way the numbers $r_1,r_2,r_3$ are ordered. It turns
            out that the proof is easy when $r_1$ or $r_2$ is the smallest of the
            three. We give the proof for the case $r_3leq r_1leq r_2$. (The case
            $r_3leq r_2leq r_1$ is similar). We have to show that



            $$r_2-r_1+r_1d(x,y)leq r_1-r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_2-r_3+r_3d(z,y)$$
            which says $$r_1d(x,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$ Since $d$
            satisfies trangle inequality it suffices to show that $$%
            r_1d(x,z)+r_1d(z,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$
            But this
            last inequality is equivalent to $$(r_1-r_3)[d(x,z)+d(z,y)]leq
            2r_1-2r_3.$$
            This is true because $d(x,z)+d(z,y)leq 1+1=2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              1 hour ago












            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            This is true but not very easy to prove.



            Suppose $X$ is not compact. Without loss of generality assume that the
            original metric $d$ on $X$ is such that $d(x,y)<1$ for all $x,yin X.$ There
            exists a decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets $C_n$ whose
            intersection is empty. Let $$rho (x,y)=sum_n=1^infty frac1%
            2^nd_n(x,y)$$
            where $$d_n(x,y)=leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert +min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y).$$
            We
            claim that $rho $ is a metric on $X$ which is equivalent to $d$ and that $%
            (X,rho )$
            is not complete. Note that $d_n(x,y)leq 2$ for all $x,yin X.$
            If $x$ and $y$ $in C_k$ then $x$ and $y$ $in C_n$ for $1leq nleq k$
            and hence $rho (x,y)leq sum_n=k+1^infty frac22^n=%
            frac12^k$
            . Thus, the diameter of $C_k$ in $(X,rho )$ does not
            exceed $frac12^k$. Once we prove that $rho $ is a metric equivalent
            to $d$ it follows that $rho $ is not complete because $C_n$ is a
            decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets whose intersection is empty.



            Assuming (for the time being) that $d_n$ satisfies triangle inequality it
            follows easily that $rho $ is a metric: if $rho (x,y)=0$ then $%
            d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)$
            for each $n$ and $min
            d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)=0$
            for each $n$. If $d(x,y)neq 0$ it
            follows that $d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)=0$ for each $n$ which implies that $x$
            and $y$ belong to each $C_n$ contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $rho $
            is a metric. Also $rho (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ as $jrightarrow infty $
            implies $leftvert d(x_j,C_n)-d(x,C_n)rightvert rightarrow 0$ and $%
            min d(x_j,C_n),d(x,C_n)d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            as $jrightarrow
            infty $
            for each $n$. There is at least one integer $k$ such that $xnotin
            C_k$
            and we conclude that $d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$. Conversely, suppose $%
            d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . Then $d_n(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ for each $n$
            and the series defining $rho $ is uniformly convergent, so $rho
            (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . It remains only to show that $d_n$ satisfies
            triangle inequality for each $n$ . We have to show that $$leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert$$
            $$+min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)$$



            $$leq leftvert d(x,C_n)-d(z,C_n)rightvert +min
            d(x,C_n),d(z,C_n)d(x,z)$$
            $$+leftvert d(z,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert
            +min d(z,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(z,y)$$
            for all $x,y,z.$ Let $%
            r_1=d(x,C_n),r_2=d(y,C_n),r_3=d(z,C_n)$
            . We consider six cases
            depending on the way the numbers $r_1,r_2,r_3$ are ordered. It turns
            out that the proof is easy when $r_1$ or $r_2$ is the smallest of the
            three. We give the proof for the case $r_3leq r_1leq r_2$. (The case
            $r_3leq r_2leq r_1$ is similar). We have to show that



            $$r_2-r_1+r_1d(x,y)leq r_1-r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_2-r_3+r_3d(z,y)$$
            which says $$r_1d(x,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$ Since $d$
            satisfies trangle inequality it suffices to show that $$%
            r_1d(x,z)+r_1d(z,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$
            But this
            last inequality is equivalent to $$(r_1-r_3)[d(x,z)+d(z,y)]leq
            2r_1-2r_3.$$
            This is true because $d(x,z)+d(z,y)leq 1+1=2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            This is true but not very easy to prove.



            Suppose $X$ is not compact. Without loss of generality assume that the
            original metric $d$ on $X$ is such that $d(x,y)<1$ for all $x,yin X.$ There
            exists a decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets $C_n$ whose
            intersection is empty. Let $$rho (x,y)=sum_n=1^infty frac1%
            2^nd_n(x,y)$$
            where $$d_n(x,y)=leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert +min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y).$$
            We
            claim that $rho $ is a metric on $X$ which is equivalent to $d$ and that $%
            (X,rho )$
            is not complete. Note that $d_n(x,y)leq 2$ for all $x,yin X.$
            If $x$ and $y$ $in C_k$ then $x$ and $y$ $in C_n$ for $1leq nleq k$
            and hence $rho (x,y)leq sum_n=k+1^infty frac22^n=%
            frac12^k$
            . Thus, the diameter of $C_k$ in $(X,rho )$ does not
            exceed $frac12^k$. Once we prove that $rho $ is a metric equivalent
            to $d$ it follows that $rho $ is not complete because $C_n$ is a
            decreasing sequence of non-empty closed sets whose intersection is empty.



            Assuming (for the time being) that $d_n$ satisfies triangle inequality it
            follows easily that $rho $ is a metric: if $rho (x,y)=0$ then $%
            d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)$
            for each $n$ and $min
            d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)=0$
            for each $n$. If $d(x,y)neq 0$ it
            follows that $d(x,C_n)=d(y,C_n)=0$ for each $n$ which implies that $x$
            and $y$ belong to each $C_n$ contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $rho $
            is a metric. Also $rho (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ as $jrightarrow infty $
            implies $leftvert d(x_j,C_n)-d(x,C_n)rightvert rightarrow 0$ and $%
            min d(x_j,C_n),d(x,C_n)d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            as $jrightarrow
            infty $
            for each $n$. There is at least one integer $k$ such that $xnotin
            C_k$
            and we conclude that $d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$. Conversely, suppose $%
            d(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . Then $d_n(x_j,x)rightarrow 0$ for each $n$
            and the series defining $rho $ is uniformly convergent, so $rho
            (x_j,x)rightarrow 0$
            . It remains only to show that $d_n$ satisfies
            triangle inequality for each $n$ . We have to show that $$leftvert
            d(x,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert$$
            $$+min d(x,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(x,y)$$



            $$leq leftvert d(x,C_n)-d(z,C_n)rightvert +min
            d(x,C_n),d(z,C_n)d(x,z)$$
            $$+leftvert d(z,C_n)-d(y,C_n)rightvert
            +min d(z,C_n),d(y,C_n)d(z,y)$$
            for all $x,y,z.$ Let $%
            r_1=d(x,C_n),r_2=d(y,C_n),r_3=d(z,C_n)$
            . We consider six cases
            depending on the way the numbers $r_1,r_2,r_3$ are ordered. It turns
            out that the proof is easy when $r_1$ or $r_2$ is the smallest of the
            three. We give the proof for the case $r_3leq r_1leq r_2$. (The case
            $r_3leq r_2leq r_1$ is similar). We have to show that



            $$r_2-r_1+r_1d(x,y)leq r_1-r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_2-r_3+r_3d(z,y)$$
            which says $$r_1d(x,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$ Since $d$
            satisfies trangle inequality it suffices to show that $$%
            r_1d(x,z)+r_1d(z,y)leq 2r_1-2r_3+r_3d(x,z)+r_3d(z,y).$$
            But this
            last inequality is equivalent to $$(r_1-r_3)[d(x,z)+d(z,y)]leq
            2r_1-2r_3.$$
            This is true because $d(x,z)+d(z,y)leq 1+1=2$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 1 hour ago

























            answered 2 hours ago









            Kavi Rama Murthy

            26.9k31438




            26.9k31438











            • I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              1 hour ago
















            • I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              1 hour ago















            I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            1 hour ago




            I believe I got this long ago from American Mathematical Monthly. Not my original proof.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            1 hour ago










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Here is an easier proof. Assume $(X,d)$ is not compact. Let $S$ be the one-point compactification of $X$. By the metrization theorems, $S$ is metrizable. Let $rho$ be such a metrization of $S$ and let $sigma$ be the restriction of $rho$ to $X$. Then $(X,sigma)$ is clearly not complete, since there exists a sequence in $X$ that converges (in $(S,rho)$) to the unique point in $Ssetminus X$. This completes the proof.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              3 mins ago














            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Here is an easier proof. Assume $(X,d)$ is not compact. Let $S$ be the one-point compactification of $X$. By the metrization theorems, $S$ is metrizable. Let $rho$ be such a metrization of $S$ and let $sigma$ be the restriction of $rho$ to $X$. Then $(X,sigma)$ is clearly not complete, since there exists a sequence in $X$ that converges (in $(S,rho)$) to the unique point in $Ssetminus X$. This completes the proof.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              3 mins ago












            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Here is an easier proof. Assume $(X,d)$ is not compact. Let $S$ be the one-point compactification of $X$. By the metrization theorems, $S$ is metrizable. Let $rho$ be such a metrization of $S$ and let $sigma$ be the restriction of $rho$ to $X$. Then $(X,sigma)$ is clearly not complete, since there exists a sequence in $X$ that converges (in $(S,rho)$) to the unique point in $Ssetminus X$. This completes the proof.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Here is an easier proof. Assume $(X,d)$ is not compact. Let $S$ be the one-point compactification of $X$. By the metrization theorems, $S$ is metrizable. Let $rho$ be such a metrization of $S$ and let $sigma$ be the restriction of $rho$ to $X$. Then $(X,sigma)$ is clearly not complete, since there exists a sequence in $X$ that converges (in $(S,rho)$) to the unique point in $Ssetminus X$. This completes the proof.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 9 mins ago

























            answered 19 mins ago









            Ali Khezeli

            935




            935











            • The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              3 mins ago
















            • The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              3 mins ago















            The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            3 mins ago




            The metrization theorem of Urysohn in the Wikipedia page is for second countable spaces.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            3 mins ago










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Nice question. Yes, it implies that $(X,d)$ is compact. In fact, suppose that $(X,d)$ is not compact. Then there is a sequence $(F_n)_ninmathbb N$ of closed subspaces of $X$ such that $bigcap_ninmathbb NF_n=emptyset$. For such a sequence, define the distance$$sigma(x,y)=sum_n=1^inftyfracbigllvert d (x,F_n)-d(y,F_n)bigrrvert+minbigld(x,F_n),d(y,F_n)bigrtimes d(x,y)2^n.$$It can be proved (see Ryszard Engelking's General Topology, section 4.3) that:




            • $sigma$ is a distance equivalent to $d$;


            • $(X,sigma)$ is not complete.





            share|cite|improve this answer


























              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Nice question. Yes, it implies that $(X,d)$ is compact. In fact, suppose that $(X,d)$ is not compact. Then there is a sequence $(F_n)_ninmathbb N$ of closed subspaces of $X$ such that $bigcap_ninmathbb NF_n=emptyset$. For such a sequence, define the distance$$sigma(x,y)=sum_n=1^inftyfracbigllvert d (x,F_n)-d(y,F_n)bigrrvert+minbigld(x,F_n),d(y,F_n)bigrtimes d(x,y)2^n.$$It can be proved (see Ryszard Engelking's General Topology, section 4.3) that:




              • $sigma$ is a distance equivalent to $d$;


              • $(X,sigma)$ is not complete.





              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                Nice question. Yes, it implies that $(X,d)$ is compact. In fact, suppose that $(X,d)$ is not compact. Then there is a sequence $(F_n)_ninmathbb N$ of closed subspaces of $X$ such that $bigcap_ninmathbb NF_n=emptyset$. For such a sequence, define the distance$$sigma(x,y)=sum_n=1^inftyfracbigllvert d (x,F_n)-d(y,F_n)bigrrvert+minbigld(x,F_n),d(y,F_n)bigrtimes d(x,y)2^n.$$It can be proved (see Ryszard Engelking's General Topology, section 4.3) that:




                • $sigma$ is a distance equivalent to $d$;


                • $(X,sigma)$ is not complete.





                share|cite|improve this answer














                Nice question. Yes, it implies that $(X,d)$ is compact. In fact, suppose that $(X,d)$ is not compact. Then there is a sequence $(F_n)_ninmathbb N$ of closed subspaces of $X$ such that $bigcap_ninmathbb NF_n=emptyset$. For such a sequence, define the distance$$sigma(x,y)=sum_n=1^inftyfracbigllvert d (x,F_n)-d(y,F_n)bigrrvert+minbigld(x,F_n),d(y,F_n)bigrtimes d(x,y)2^n.$$It can be proved (see Ryszard Engelking's General Topology, section 4.3) that:




                • $sigma$ is a distance equivalent to $d$;


                • $(X,sigma)$ is not complete.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited 1 min ago

























                answered 1 hour ago









                José Carlos Santos

                123k17101186




                123k17101186



























                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded















































                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2925031%2fcompactness-of-a-metric-space%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    Comments

                    Popular posts from this blog

                    What does second last employer means? [closed]

                    List of Gilmore Girls characters

                    Confectionery