Doubt about the vacua equations of General Relativity

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I'm facing a quite annoying conceptual problem concerning the Einstein Field Equations (EFE) in so called "vacuum". This problem is both physical and mathematical.



So, in a elementary point of view, when a manifold is flat we have:



$$ R^delta_mu gamma nu = 0tag1$$



i.e. the Riemannian curvature is zero.



Consider now the EFE in the form:



$$ R_mu nu = 0.tag2$$



This equation have both strong mathematical and physical meaning:



About the mathematical meaning this is a condition called Ricci flat and about the physical meaning this is the EFE in vaccum.



  1. So, firstly, Ricci flat condition implies Riemann flat condition?


  2. Secondly, I have a serious doubts about the concept of vacuum. What is vaccum in GR? I mean, Kerr metric is a vacuum solution but the Manifold is curved, so the absence of matter shouldn't implies a flat space?










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  • That's not Einsteins Field Equations. That's just an arbitrary condition you've just applied.
    – Mozibur Ullah
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    @MoziburUllah In vacuum the Einstein field equations really do simplify to $R_munu = 0$.
    – Mike
    3 hours ago














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm facing a quite annoying conceptual problem concerning the Einstein Field Equations (EFE) in so called "vacuum". This problem is both physical and mathematical.



So, in a elementary point of view, when a manifold is flat we have:



$$ R^delta_mu gamma nu = 0tag1$$



i.e. the Riemannian curvature is zero.



Consider now the EFE in the form:



$$ R_mu nu = 0.tag2$$



This equation have both strong mathematical and physical meaning:



About the mathematical meaning this is a condition called Ricci flat and about the physical meaning this is the EFE in vaccum.



  1. So, firstly, Ricci flat condition implies Riemann flat condition?


  2. Secondly, I have a serious doubts about the concept of vacuum. What is vaccum in GR? I mean, Kerr metric is a vacuum solution but the Manifold is curved, so the absence of matter shouldn't implies a flat space?










share|cite|improve this question























  • That's not Einsteins Field Equations. That's just an arbitrary condition you've just applied.
    – Mozibur Ullah
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    @MoziburUllah In vacuum the Einstein field equations really do simplify to $R_munu = 0$.
    – Mike
    3 hours ago












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm facing a quite annoying conceptual problem concerning the Einstein Field Equations (EFE) in so called "vacuum". This problem is both physical and mathematical.



So, in a elementary point of view, when a manifold is flat we have:



$$ R^delta_mu gamma nu = 0tag1$$



i.e. the Riemannian curvature is zero.



Consider now the EFE in the form:



$$ R_mu nu = 0.tag2$$



This equation have both strong mathematical and physical meaning:



About the mathematical meaning this is a condition called Ricci flat and about the physical meaning this is the EFE in vaccum.



  1. So, firstly, Ricci flat condition implies Riemann flat condition?


  2. Secondly, I have a serious doubts about the concept of vacuum. What is vaccum in GR? I mean, Kerr metric is a vacuum solution but the Manifold is curved, so the absence of matter shouldn't implies a flat space?










share|cite|improve this question















I'm facing a quite annoying conceptual problem concerning the Einstein Field Equations (EFE) in so called "vacuum". This problem is both physical and mathematical.



So, in a elementary point of view, when a manifold is flat we have:



$$ R^delta_mu gamma nu = 0tag1$$



i.e. the Riemannian curvature is zero.



Consider now the EFE in the form:



$$ R_mu nu = 0.tag2$$



This equation have both strong mathematical and physical meaning:



About the mathematical meaning this is a condition called Ricci flat and about the physical meaning this is the EFE in vaccum.



  1. So, firstly, Ricci flat condition implies Riemann flat condition?


  2. Secondly, I have a serious doubts about the concept of vacuum. What is vaccum in GR? I mean, Kerr metric is a vacuum solution but the Manifold is curved, so the absence of matter shouldn't implies a flat space?







general-relativity differential-geometry metric-tensor tensor-calculus curvature






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edited 3 hours ago









Qmechanic♦

99k121781095




99k121781095










asked 4 hours ago









Jack Clerk

36619




36619











  • That's not Einsteins Field Equations. That's just an arbitrary condition you've just applied.
    – Mozibur Ullah
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    @MoziburUllah In vacuum the Einstein field equations really do simplify to $R_munu = 0$.
    – Mike
    3 hours ago
















  • That's not Einsteins Field Equations. That's just an arbitrary condition you've just applied.
    – Mozibur Ullah
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    @MoziburUllah In vacuum the Einstein field equations really do simplify to $R_munu = 0$.
    – Mike
    3 hours ago















That's not Einsteins Field Equations. That's just an arbitrary condition you've just applied.
– Mozibur Ullah
3 hours ago




That's not Einsteins Field Equations. That's just an arbitrary condition you've just applied.
– Mozibur Ullah
3 hours ago




1




1




@MoziburUllah In vacuum the Einstein field equations really do simplify to $R_munu = 0$.
– Mike
3 hours ago




@MoziburUllah In vacuum the Einstein field equations really do simplify to $R_munu = 0$.
– Mike
3 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










The Kerr solution is a vacuum solution everywhere BUT the singularity! If you were to "smooth out" the singularity, rest assured there would be a very big $R_mu nu$ in that region.



The way you solve the Kerr solution is by saying "what if I have $R_mu nu = 0$ everwhere in a rotationally symmetric space time with the boundary conditions that my metric becomes Minkowski at infinity?"



In actuality, the only such solution is to have space be flat everywhere! However, when solving the equations people usually discount the origin, allowing for more interesting solutions.



Note that if $R_mu nu rho sigma = 0$ your space must be Minkowski everwhere. However, you can have $R_mu nu rho sigma neq 0$ somewhere and still have $R_mu nu = 0$. This is the case in the Kerr solution. Kerr space time is not flat. It is curved (even outside the singularity) even though $R_mu nu = 0$ there. There is no contradiction. Ricci flat is much weaker than being completely flat.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
    – N. Steinle
    3 hours ago


















up vote
1
down vote













The vanishing of the curvature tensor $R_abcd=0$ indeed implies that the Ricci tensor also vanishes, $R_ab=0$, but not the other way around.



It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$ (assuming it is non-zero elsewhere causing curvature in the first place).






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
    – Jack Clerk
    3 hours ago










  • I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
    – Garf
    3 hours ago











  • When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
    – Jack Clerk
    3 hours ago










  • No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
    – Garf
    3 hours ago


















up vote
1
down vote













The answers already given are correct, but I will elaborate a little in hopes of giving some physical insight.



It is a common misconception to think that zero $R_ab$ implies no curvature, or that zero $T_ab$ implies no curvature and hence no tidal effects (geodesic deviation and the like). To avoid the misconception about $R_ab$, you can think of $R_ab$ as a statement about direction-averaged curvature, that is, curvature after averaging over direction. Then what we are saying for vacuum is not there is no curvature, but rather if there is some positive curvature in one direction, then there must be negative curvature in another direction.



Next, to get a feel for the role of $T_ab$, compare it to the simpler case of charge and current as a source of electromagnetic fields. If there is a region of space with no charge and current, it does not necessarily mean the electromagnetic field tensor has to be zero there. Rather, its divergence is zero. Similarly, if $T_ab$ is zero, that in itself does not say whether the Riemann curvature is zero, but it does restrict the way the Riemann tensor can vary from one place to another.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    The Kerr solution is a vacuum solution everywhere BUT the singularity! If you were to "smooth out" the singularity, rest assured there would be a very big $R_mu nu$ in that region.



    The way you solve the Kerr solution is by saying "what if I have $R_mu nu = 0$ everwhere in a rotationally symmetric space time with the boundary conditions that my metric becomes Minkowski at infinity?"



    In actuality, the only such solution is to have space be flat everywhere! However, when solving the equations people usually discount the origin, allowing for more interesting solutions.



    Note that if $R_mu nu rho sigma = 0$ your space must be Minkowski everwhere. However, you can have $R_mu nu rho sigma neq 0$ somewhere and still have $R_mu nu = 0$. This is the case in the Kerr solution. Kerr space time is not flat. It is curved (even outside the singularity) even though $R_mu nu = 0$ there. There is no contradiction. Ricci flat is much weaker than being completely flat.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
      – N. Steinle
      3 hours ago















    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    The Kerr solution is a vacuum solution everywhere BUT the singularity! If you were to "smooth out" the singularity, rest assured there would be a very big $R_mu nu$ in that region.



    The way you solve the Kerr solution is by saying "what if I have $R_mu nu = 0$ everwhere in a rotationally symmetric space time with the boundary conditions that my metric becomes Minkowski at infinity?"



    In actuality, the only such solution is to have space be flat everywhere! However, when solving the equations people usually discount the origin, allowing for more interesting solutions.



    Note that if $R_mu nu rho sigma = 0$ your space must be Minkowski everwhere. However, you can have $R_mu nu rho sigma neq 0$ somewhere and still have $R_mu nu = 0$. This is the case in the Kerr solution. Kerr space time is not flat. It is curved (even outside the singularity) even though $R_mu nu = 0$ there. There is no contradiction. Ricci flat is much weaker than being completely flat.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
      – N. Steinle
      3 hours ago













    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted






    The Kerr solution is a vacuum solution everywhere BUT the singularity! If you were to "smooth out" the singularity, rest assured there would be a very big $R_mu nu$ in that region.



    The way you solve the Kerr solution is by saying "what if I have $R_mu nu = 0$ everwhere in a rotationally symmetric space time with the boundary conditions that my metric becomes Minkowski at infinity?"



    In actuality, the only such solution is to have space be flat everywhere! However, when solving the equations people usually discount the origin, allowing for more interesting solutions.



    Note that if $R_mu nu rho sigma = 0$ your space must be Minkowski everwhere. However, you can have $R_mu nu rho sigma neq 0$ somewhere and still have $R_mu nu = 0$. This is the case in the Kerr solution. Kerr space time is not flat. It is curved (even outside the singularity) even though $R_mu nu = 0$ there. There is no contradiction. Ricci flat is much weaker than being completely flat.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    The Kerr solution is a vacuum solution everywhere BUT the singularity! If you were to "smooth out" the singularity, rest assured there would be a very big $R_mu nu$ in that region.



    The way you solve the Kerr solution is by saying "what if I have $R_mu nu = 0$ everwhere in a rotationally symmetric space time with the boundary conditions that my metric becomes Minkowski at infinity?"



    In actuality, the only such solution is to have space be flat everywhere! However, when solving the equations people usually discount the origin, allowing for more interesting solutions.



    Note that if $R_mu nu rho sigma = 0$ your space must be Minkowski everwhere. However, you can have $R_mu nu rho sigma neq 0$ somewhere and still have $R_mu nu = 0$. This is the case in the Kerr solution. Kerr space time is not flat. It is curved (even outside the singularity) even though $R_mu nu = 0$ there. There is no contradiction. Ricci flat is much weaker than being completely flat.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 3 hours ago

























    answered 4 hours ago









    user1379857

    1,842721




    1,842721







    • 1




      I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
      – N. Steinle
      3 hours ago













    • 1




      I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
      – N. Steinle
      3 hours ago








    1




    1




    I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
    – N. Steinle
    3 hours ago





    I like this answer, and I always appreciated the role of the Weyl Tensor: a nice way of viewing the difference between flatness of the Ricci tensor vs flatness of the Riemann tensor, since the Riemann tensor is zero precisely when the Weyl tensor is zero. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weyl_tensor
    – N. Steinle
    3 hours ago











    up vote
    1
    down vote













    The vanishing of the curvature tensor $R_abcd=0$ indeed implies that the Ricci tensor also vanishes, $R_ab=0$, but not the other way around.



    It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$ (assuming it is non-zero elsewhere causing curvature in the first place).






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago











    • When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    The vanishing of the curvature tensor $R_abcd=0$ indeed implies that the Ricci tensor also vanishes, $R_ab=0$, but not the other way around.



    It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$ (assuming it is non-zero elsewhere causing curvature in the first place).






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago











    • When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago













    up vote
    1
    down vote










    up vote
    1
    down vote









    The vanishing of the curvature tensor $R_abcd=0$ indeed implies that the Ricci tensor also vanishes, $R_ab=0$, but not the other way around.



    It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$ (assuming it is non-zero elsewhere causing curvature in the first place).






    share|cite|improve this answer














    The vanishing of the curvature tensor $R_abcd=0$ indeed implies that the Ricci tensor also vanishes, $R_ab=0$, but not the other way around.



    It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$ (assuming it is non-zero elsewhere causing curvature in the first place).







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 3 hours ago

























    answered 4 hours ago









    Garf

    1,095217




    1,095217







    • 1




      "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago











    • When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago













    • 1




      "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago











    • When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
      – Jack Clerk
      3 hours ago










    • No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
      – Garf
      3 hours ago








    1




    1




    "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
    – Jack Clerk
    3 hours ago




    "It is possible to have curved spacetime in a region where the stress-energy tensor $T_munu=0$", ok, why?
    – Jack Clerk
    3 hours ago












    I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
    – Garf
    3 hours ago





    I've just edited my answer - as long as $T_munu$ is non-zero somewhere, this will give rise to curvature everywhere in spacetime. If however we're only interested in what's happening in the vacuum, we can just say we wish to solve $R_munu=0$.
    – Garf
    3 hours ago













    When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
    – Jack Clerk
    3 hours ago




    When the energy-momentum tensor is zero, this means that there's no matter or you are faraway from the souce of curvature?
    – Jack Clerk
    3 hours ago












    No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
    – Garf
    3 hours ago





    No I don't think this is correct - for example a very basic form of $T_munu$ is for a non-relativistic fluid $$T_munu=rho u_mu u_nu$$ and if we say $rho$ is non-zero in a finite region (say a sphere) and is $0$ elsewhere, then $T_munu$ behaves the same - however, spacetime is still curved in the region where $rho=0$.
    – Garf
    3 hours ago











    up vote
    1
    down vote













    The answers already given are correct, but I will elaborate a little in hopes of giving some physical insight.



    It is a common misconception to think that zero $R_ab$ implies no curvature, or that zero $T_ab$ implies no curvature and hence no tidal effects (geodesic deviation and the like). To avoid the misconception about $R_ab$, you can think of $R_ab$ as a statement about direction-averaged curvature, that is, curvature after averaging over direction. Then what we are saying for vacuum is not there is no curvature, but rather if there is some positive curvature in one direction, then there must be negative curvature in another direction.



    Next, to get a feel for the role of $T_ab$, compare it to the simpler case of charge and current as a source of electromagnetic fields. If there is a region of space with no charge and current, it does not necessarily mean the electromagnetic field tensor has to be zero there. Rather, its divergence is zero. Similarly, if $T_ab$ is zero, that in itself does not say whether the Riemann curvature is zero, but it does restrict the way the Riemann tensor can vary from one place to another.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      The answers already given are correct, but I will elaborate a little in hopes of giving some physical insight.



      It is a common misconception to think that zero $R_ab$ implies no curvature, or that zero $T_ab$ implies no curvature and hence no tidal effects (geodesic deviation and the like). To avoid the misconception about $R_ab$, you can think of $R_ab$ as a statement about direction-averaged curvature, that is, curvature after averaging over direction. Then what we are saying for vacuum is not there is no curvature, but rather if there is some positive curvature in one direction, then there must be negative curvature in another direction.



      Next, to get a feel for the role of $T_ab$, compare it to the simpler case of charge and current as a source of electromagnetic fields. If there is a region of space with no charge and current, it does not necessarily mean the electromagnetic field tensor has to be zero there. Rather, its divergence is zero. Similarly, if $T_ab$ is zero, that in itself does not say whether the Riemann curvature is zero, but it does restrict the way the Riemann tensor can vary from one place to another.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        The answers already given are correct, but I will elaborate a little in hopes of giving some physical insight.



        It is a common misconception to think that zero $R_ab$ implies no curvature, or that zero $T_ab$ implies no curvature and hence no tidal effects (geodesic deviation and the like). To avoid the misconception about $R_ab$, you can think of $R_ab$ as a statement about direction-averaged curvature, that is, curvature after averaging over direction. Then what we are saying for vacuum is not there is no curvature, but rather if there is some positive curvature in one direction, then there must be negative curvature in another direction.



        Next, to get a feel for the role of $T_ab$, compare it to the simpler case of charge and current as a source of electromagnetic fields. If there is a region of space with no charge and current, it does not necessarily mean the electromagnetic field tensor has to be zero there. Rather, its divergence is zero. Similarly, if $T_ab$ is zero, that in itself does not say whether the Riemann curvature is zero, but it does restrict the way the Riemann tensor can vary from one place to another.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The answers already given are correct, but I will elaborate a little in hopes of giving some physical insight.



        It is a common misconception to think that zero $R_ab$ implies no curvature, or that zero $T_ab$ implies no curvature and hence no tidal effects (geodesic deviation and the like). To avoid the misconception about $R_ab$, you can think of $R_ab$ as a statement about direction-averaged curvature, that is, curvature after averaging over direction. Then what we are saying for vacuum is not there is no curvature, but rather if there is some positive curvature in one direction, then there must be negative curvature in another direction.



        Next, to get a feel for the role of $T_ab$, compare it to the simpler case of charge and current as a source of electromagnetic fields. If there is a region of space with no charge and current, it does not necessarily mean the electromagnetic field tensor has to be zero there. Rather, its divergence is zero. Similarly, if $T_ab$ is zero, that in itself does not say whether the Riemann curvature is zero, but it does restrict the way the Riemann tensor can vary from one place to another.







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        answered 3 hours ago









        Andrew Steane

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