Scottish, English, why not *Walish?

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As the title question asks, and particularly in light of the Old English word wælisc apparently used to refer to "Welsh", when, why, and how did the English adjective meaning "of or relating to Wales" become "Welsh"? In particular:



Which of the apparently l Old English forms made it into Middle English?



Where (ie, what's the first Middle English appearance)?



Did the vowel change already worst) appear by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later?



Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to Middle English e?



In other words, when I ask "when, how, and why", I'm looking for a many details as possible of the historical and phonological process involved.






etymology vowels old-english







share|improve this question























  • Perhaps if it were called Walland and not Wales.
    – Ian MacDonald
    11 mins ago

















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












As the title question asks, and particularly in light of the Old English word wælisc apparently used to refer to "Welsh", when, why, and how did the English adjective meaning "of or relating to Wales" become "Welsh"? In particular:



Which of the apparently l Old English forms made it into Middle English?



Where (ie, what's the first Middle English appearance)?



Did the vowel change already worst) appear by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later?



Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to Middle English e?



In other words, when I ask "when, how, and why", I'm looking for a many details as possible of the historical and phonological process involved.






etymology vowels old-english







share|improve this question























  • Perhaps if it were called Walland and not Wales.
    – Ian MacDonald
    11 mins ago













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





As the title question asks, and particularly in light of the Old English word wælisc apparently used to refer to "Welsh", when, why, and how did the English adjective meaning "of or relating to Wales" become "Welsh"? In particular:



Which of the apparently l Old English forms made it into Middle English?



Where (ie, what's the first Middle English appearance)?



Did the vowel change already worst) appear by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later?



Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to Middle English e?



In other words, when I ask "when, how, and why", I'm looking for a many details as possible of the historical and phonological process involved.






etymology vowels old-english







share|improve this question















As the title question asks, and particularly in light of the Old English word wælisc apparently used to refer to "Welsh", when, why, and how did the English adjective meaning "of or relating to Wales" become "Welsh"? In particular:



Which of the apparently l Old English forms made it into Middle English?



Where (ie, what's the first Middle English appearance)?



Did the vowel change already worst) appear by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later?



Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to Middle English e?



In other words, when I ask "when, how, and why", I'm looking for a many details as possible of the historical and phonological process involved.






etymology vowels old-english




etymology vowels old-english






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 16 mins ago

























asked 1 hour ago









Matt Gutting

5,6072235




5,6072235











  • Perhaps if it were called Walland and not Wales.
    – Ian MacDonald
    11 mins ago

















  • Perhaps if it were called Walland and not Wales.
    – Ian MacDonald
    11 mins ago
















Perhaps if it were called Walland and not Wales.
– Ian MacDonald
11 mins ago





Perhaps if it were called Walland and not Wales.
– Ian MacDonald
11 mins ago











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
5
down vote













It actually used to be some form of "Walish" that has since been contracted:




Welsh Old English Wielisc, Wylisc (West Saxon), Welisc, Wælisc (Anglian and Kentish);




but it actually meant "foreign" or, more properly, "not Anglo-Saxon"; the Welsh called their country something else, and do to this day. In the Welsh language it's not Wales but Cymru.



Etymonline.






share|improve this answer
















  • 1




    I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
    – FumbleFingers
    56 mins ago










  • @FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
    – Robusto
    52 mins ago










  • So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
    – Matt Gutting
    22 mins ago

















up vote
1
down vote













Note that Scottish has the contracted form “Scotch” (also “Scots”, where the use of /s/ is I think a Scottish feature).



I would guess that the consonant cluster in the middle of “English” inhibited the development of any monosyllabic contracted forms—“Englsh” is not exactly a validly formed syllable in English.



Alongside Welsh we have French and Dutch (although in Dutch the contraction happened before the word entered English).






share|improve this answer






















  • And the vowel quality change after w?
    – Matt Gutting
    13 mins ago










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2 Answers
2






active

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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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up vote
5
down vote













It actually used to be some form of "Walish" that has since been contracted:




Welsh Old English Wielisc, Wylisc (West Saxon), Welisc, Wælisc (Anglian and Kentish);




but it actually meant "foreign" or, more properly, "not Anglo-Saxon"; the Welsh called their country something else, and do to this day. In the Welsh language it's not Wales but Cymru.



Etymonline.






share|improve this answer
















  • 1




    I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
    – FumbleFingers
    56 mins ago










  • @FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
    – Robusto
    52 mins ago










  • So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
    – Matt Gutting
    22 mins ago














up vote
5
down vote













It actually used to be some form of "Walish" that has since been contracted:




Welsh Old English Wielisc, Wylisc (West Saxon), Welisc, Wælisc (Anglian and Kentish);




but it actually meant "foreign" or, more properly, "not Anglo-Saxon"; the Welsh called their country something else, and do to this day. In the Welsh language it's not Wales but Cymru.



Etymonline.






share|improve this answer
















  • 1




    I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
    – FumbleFingers
    56 mins ago










  • @FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
    – Robusto
    52 mins ago










  • So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
    – Matt Gutting
    22 mins ago












up vote
5
down vote










up vote
5
down vote









It actually used to be some form of "Walish" that has since been contracted:




Welsh Old English Wielisc, Wylisc (West Saxon), Welisc, Wælisc (Anglian and Kentish);




but it actually meant "foreign" or, more properly, "not Anglo-Saxon"; the Welsh called their country something else, and do to this day. In the Welsh language it's not Wales but Cymru.



Etymonline.






share|improve this answer












It actually used to be some form of "Walish" that has since been contracted:




Welsh Old English Wielisc, Wylisc (West Saxon), Welisc, Wælisc (Anglian and Kentish);




but it actually meant "foreign" or, more properly, "not Anglo-Saxon"; the Welsh called their country something else, and do to this day. In the Welsh language it's not Wales but Cymru.



Etymonline.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 59 mins ago









Robusto

125k27295505




125k27295505







  • 1




    I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
    – FumbleFingers
    56 mins ago










  • @FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
    – Robusto
    52 mins ago










  • So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
    – Matt Gutting
    22 mins ago












  • 1




    I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
    – FumbleFingers
    56 mins ago










  • @FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
    – Robusto
    52 mins ago










  • So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
    – Matt Gutting
    22 mins ago







1




1




I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
– FumbleFingers
56 mins ago




I was intrigued by OED's Old English Wealh , (Anglian) Walh foreigner, Briton, Welsh person, slave, is cognate with Old High German Walh , Walah speaker of a Romance language (Middle High German Walch , Walhe foreigner, speaker of a Romance language, specifically Frenchman or Italian, German †Wahle ), Middle Dutch Wale speaker of a Romance language, specifically Walloon or Frenchman (Dutch Waal Walloon, speaker of a Romance language, especially French; compare the Old Dutch byname Wal , Walo )... Never knew the Welsh roots stretched that far east!
– FumbleFingers
56 mins ago












@FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
– Robusto
52 mins ago




@FumbleFingers: Walloon is kind of an a-hah moment for me.
– Robusto
52 mins ago












So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
– Matt Gutting
22 mins ago




So was the Anglian form definitely the one that made it into Middle English? Was the vowel change set by the first appearance in Middle English, or did that come later? Is there a general rule converting Old English æ to later e? I'll edit those questions into my main one - that's really what I wanted to know.
– Matt Gutting
22 mins ago












up vote
1
down vote













Note that Scottish has the contracted form “Scotch” (also “Scots”, where the use of /s/ is I think a Scottish feature).



I would guess that the consonant cluster in the middle of “English” inhibited the development of any monosyllabic contracted forms—“Englsh” is not exactly a validly formed syllable in English.



Alongside Welsh we have French and Dutch (although in Dutch the contraction happened before the word entered English).






share|improve this answer






















  • And the vowel quality change after w?
    – Matt Gutting
    13 mins ago














up vote
1
down vote













Note that Scottish has the contracted form “Scotch” (also “Scots”, where the use of /s/ is I think a Scottish feature).



I would guess that the consonant cluster in the middle of “English” inhibited the development of any monosyllabic contracted forms—“Englsh” is not exactly a validly formed syllable in English.



Alongside Welsh we have French and Dutch (although in Dutch the contraction happened before the word entered English).






share|improve this answer






















  • And the vowel quality change after w?
    – Matt Gutting
    13 mins ago












up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Note that Scottish has the contracted form “Scotch” (also “Scots”, where the use of /s/ is I think a Scottish feature).



I would guess that the consonant cluster in the middle of “English” inhibited the development of any monosyllabic contracted forms—“Englsh” is not exactly a validly formed syllable in English.



Alongside Welsh we have French and Dutch (although in Dutch the contraction happened before the word entered English).






share|improve this answer














Note that Scottish has the contracted form “Scotch” (also “Scots”, where the use of /s/ is I think a Scottish feature).



I would guess that the consonant cluster in the middle of “English” inhibited the development of any monosyllabic contracted forms—“Englsh” is not exactly a validly formed syllable in English.



Alongside Welsh we have French and Dutch (although in Dutch the contraction happened before the word entered English).







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 39 mins ago

























answered 44 mins ago









sumelic

43.2k6102203




43.2k6102203











  • And the vowel quality change after w?
    – Matt Gutting
    13 mins ago
















  • And the vowel quality change after w?
    – Matt Gutting
    13 mins ago















And the vowel quality change after w?
– Matt Gutting
13 mins ago




And the vowel quality change after w?
– Matt Gutting
13 mins ago

















 

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