Function with arbitrary small period

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Is there a function f: $mathbbR to mathbbR$ with arbitrary small period different from $f(x) = k$? ($forall epsilon >0 exists a < epsilon $ such that the period of f(x) is $a$)
I think the function is the Dirichlet function but I don't know how to prove it properly.










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  • Sorry I forgot to add that the function is non costant
    – Lance
    36 mins ago










  • F(x)=1 for numbers with a halting decimal expansion, for example $3.452$ and not $1/3$
    – Empy2
    23 mins ago














up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Is there a function f: $mathbbR to mathbbR$ with arbitrary small period different from $f(x) = k$? ($forall epsilon >0 exists a < epsilon $ such that the period of f(x) is $a$)
I think the function is the Dirichlet function but I don't know how to prove it properly.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lance is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.



















  • Sorry I forgot to add that the function is non costant
    – Lance
    36 mins ago










  • F(x)=1 for numbers with a halting decimal expansion, for example $3.452$ and not $1/3$
    – Empy2
    23 mins ago












up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





Is there a function f: $mathbbR to mathbbR$ with arbitrary small period different from $f(x) = k$? ($forall epsilon >0 exists a < epsilon $ such that the period of f(x) is $a$)
I think the function is the Dirichlet function but I don't know how to prove it properly.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lance is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Is there a function f: $mathbbR to mathbbR$ with arbitrary small period different from $f(x) = k$? ($forall epsilon >0 exists a < epsilon $ such that the period of f(x) is $a$)
I think the function is the Dirichlet function but I don't know how to prove it properly.







periodic-functions






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edited 34 mins ago





















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asked 38 mins ago









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Lance is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • Sorry I forgot to add that the function is non costant
    – Lance
    36 mins ago










  • F(x)=1 for numbers with a halting decimal expansion, for example $3.452$ and not $1/3$
    – Empy2
    23 mins ago
















  • Sorry I forgot to add that the function is non costant
    – Lance
    36 mins ago










  • F(x)=1 for numbers with a halting decimal expansion, for example $3.452$ and not $1/3$
    – Empy2
    23 mins ago















Sorry I forgot to add that the function is non costant
– Lance
36 mins ago




Sorry I forgot to add that the function is non costant
– Lance
36 mins ago












F(x)=1 for numbers with a halting decimal expansion, for example $3.452$ and not $1/3$
– Empy2
23 mins ago




F(x)=1 for numbers with a halting decimal expansion, for example $3.452$ and not $1/3$
– Empy2
23 mins ago










2 Answers
2






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You're right. The characteristic function of the rationals is periodic of period $1/n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ because $x$ is rational iff $x+1/n$ is rational.






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    up vote
    2
    down vote













    You're correct.



    Let $epsilon$ be arbitrarily small. You need to prove that there exists some $0<p<epsilon$ such that $D(x)=D(x+p)$ for all $xin mathbbR$.



    We know that $epsilon$ is some positive real number, so there exists some $pin mathbbQ$ such that $0<p<epsilon$. Let's look at an arbitrary $xin mathbbR$ and see if our property is satisfied or not:



    If $x$ is rational, then $D(x)=1$. Since the sum of two rationals is rational, then $D(x+p)=1$ too.



    If $x$ is irrational, then $D(x)=0$. Since the sum of a rational and an irrational is irrational, then $D(x+p)=0$ too.



    So if we choose our period to be $p$, our property is satisfied.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      active

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      active

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      up vote
      4
      down vote













      You're right. The characteristic function of the rationals is periodic of period $1/n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ because $x$ is rational iff $x+1/n$ is rational.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        4
        down vote













        You're right. The characteristic function of the rationals is periodic of period $1/n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ because $x$ is rational iff $x+1/n$ is rational.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          4
          down vote










          up vote
          4
          down vote









          You're right. The characteristic function of the rationals is periodic of period $1/n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ because $x$ is rational iff $x+1/n$ is rational.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          You're right. The characteristic function of the rationals is periodic of period $1/n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ because $x$ is rational iff $x+1/n$ is rational.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 33 mins ago









          lhf

          158k9161375




          158k9161375




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              You're correct.



              Let $epsilon$ be arbitrarily small. You need to prove that there exists some $0<p<epsilon$ such that $D(x)=D(x+p)$ for all $xin mathbbR$.



              We know that $epsilon$ is some positive real number, so there exists some $pin mathbbQ$ such that $0<p<epsilon$. Let's look at an arbitrary $xin mathbbR$ and see if our property is satisfied or not:



              If $x$ is rational, then $D(x)=1$. Since the sum of two rationals is rational, then $D(x+p)=1$ too.



              If $x$ is irrational, then $D(x)=0$. Since the sum of a rational and an irrational is irrational, then $D(x+p)=0$ too.



              So if we choose our period to be $p$, our property is satisfied.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                You're correct.



                Let $epsilon$ be arbitrarily small. You need to prove that there exists some $0<p<epsilon$ such that $D(x)=D(x+p)$ for all $xin mathbbR$.



                We know that $epsilon$ is some positive real number, so there exists some $pin mathbbQ$ such that $0<p<epsilon$. Let's look at an arbitrary $xin mathbbR$ and see if our property is satisfied or not:



                If $x$ is rational, then $D(x)=1$. Since the sum of two rationals is rational, then $D(x+p)=1$ too.



                If $x$ is irrational, then $D(x)=0$. Since the sum of a rational and an irrational is irrational, then $D(x+p)=0$ too.



                So if we choose our period to be $p$, our property is satisfied.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  You're correct.



                  Let $epsilon$ be arbitrarily small. You need to prove that there exists some $0<p<epsilon$ such that $D(x)=D(x+p)$ for all $xin mathbbR$.



                  We know that $epsilon$ is some positive real number, so there exists some $pin mathbbQ$ such that $0<p<epsilon$. Let's look at an arbitrary $xin mathbbR$ and see if our property is satisfied or not:



                  If $x$ is rational, then $D(x)=1$. Since the sum of two rationals is rational, then $D(x+p)=1$ too.



                  If $x$ is irrational, then $D(x)=0$. Since the sum of a rational and an irrational is irrational, then $D(x+p)=0$ too.



                  So if we choose our period to be $p$, our property is satisfied.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  You're correct.



                  Let $epsilon$ be arbitrarily small. You need to prove that there exists some $0<p<epsilon$ such that $D(x)=D(x+p)$ for all $xin mathbbR$.



                  We know that $epsilon$ is some positive real number, so there exists some $pin mathbbQ$ such that $0<p<epsilon$. Let's look at an arbitrary $xin mathbbR$ and see if our property is satisfied or not:



                  If $x$ is rational, then $D(x)=1$. Since the sum of two rationals is rational, then $D(x+p)=1$ too.



                  If $x$ is irrational, then $D(x)=0$. Since the sum of a rational and an irrational is irrational, then $D(x+p)=0$ too.



                  So if we choose our period to be $p$, our property is satisfied.







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                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 26 mins ago









                  GSofer

                  371211




                  371211




















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