Find the probability that the thirteenth spade will appear before the thirteenth diamond?

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The $52$ cards of an ordinary deck of cards are placed successively one after the other from left to right. Find the probability that the thirteenth spade will appear before the thirteenth diamond?



This appears to be a hard problem since counting the favorable cases are hard to count. Clearly, the position of the $13$th diamond must be between $26$ and $N$. Now, I tried to count for specific values, but I find this difficult, perhaps there is a better way?



Note:
I checked the answer and the favorable cases are supposed to be:



$$sum_k=26^52(n-1)!(52-n)!binom26n-26cdot 13.$$



So I guess this ugly sum divided by $(52)!$ is equal to $1/2,$ right?



PS:



Question:



enter image description here



Answer:



enter image description here










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  • Your sum involves products of positive integers so will be more than $frac12$ and is indeed more than $8 times 10^52$
    – Henry
    21 mins ago











  • I have made an edit.
    – Hello_World
    19 mins ago










  • Divided by $52!$ is it about $10^-15$
    – Henry
    18 mins ago










  • @Henry Actually, I get $frac12$ when I divide the sum by $52!$, assuming that where $n$ appears it is supposed to be $k$.
    – Misha Lavrov
    16 mins ago










  • I made another edit @Henry.
    – Hello_World
    15 mins ago














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












The $52$ cards of an ordinary deck of cards are placed successively one after the other from left to right. Find the probability that the thirteenth spade will appear before the thirteenth diamond?



This appears to be a hard problem since counting the favorable cases are hard to count. Clearly, the position of the $13$th diamond must be between $26$ and $N$. Now, I tried to count for specific values, but I find this difficult, perhaps there is a better way?



Note:
I checked the answer and the favorable cases are supposed to be:



$$sum_k=26^52(n-1)!(52-n)!binom26n-26cdot 13.$$



So I guess this ugly sum divided by $(52)!$ is equal to $1/2,$ right?



PS:



Question:



enter image description here



Answer:



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question























  • Your sum involves products of positive integers so will be more than $frac12$ and is indeed more than $8 times 10^52$
    – Henry
    21 mins ago











  • I have made an edit.
    – Hello_World
    19 mins ago










  • Divided by $52!$ is it about $10^-15$
    – Henry
    18 mins ago










  • @Henry Actually, I get $frac12$ when I divide the sum by $52!$, assuming that where $n$ appears it is supposed to be $k$.
    – Misha Lavrov
    16 mins ago










  • I made another edit @Henry.
    – Hello_World
    15 mins ago












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











The $52$ cards of an ordinary deck of cards are placed successively one after the other from left to right. Find the probability that the thirteenth spade will appear before the thirteenth diamond?



This appears to be a hard problem since counting the favorable cases are hard to count. Clearly, the position of the $13$th diamond must be between $26$ and $N$. Now, I tried to count for specific values, but I find this difficult, perhaps there is a better way?



Note:
I checked the answer and the favorable cases are supposed to be:



$$sum_k=26^52(n-1)!(52-n)!binom26n-26cdot 13.$$



So I guess this ugly sum divided by $(52)!$ is equal to $1/2,$ right?



PS:



Question:



enter image description here



Answer:



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question















The $52$ cards of an ordinary deck of cards are placed successively one after the other from left to right. Find the probability that the thirteenth spade will appear before the thirteenth diamond?



This appears to be a hard problem since counting the favorable cases are hard to count. Clearly, the position of the $13$th diamond must be between $26$ and $N$. Now, I tried to count for specific values, but I find this difficult, perhaps there is a better way?



Note:
I checked the answer and the favorable cases are supposed to be:



$$sum_k=26^52(n-1)!(52-n)!binom26n-26cdot 13.$$



So I guess this ugly sum divided by $(52)!$ is equal to $1/2,$ right?



PS:



Question:



enter image description here



Answer:



enter image description here







probability combinatorics






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited 15 mins ago

























asked 32 mins ago









Hello_World

3,43321429




3,43321429











  • Your sum involves products of positive integers so will be more than $frac12$ and is indeed more than $8 times 10^52$
    – Henry
    21 mins ago











  • I have made an edit.
    – Hello_World
    19 mins ago










  • Divided by $52!$ is it about $10^-15$
    – Henry
    18 mins ago










  • @Henry Actually, I get $frac12$ when I divide the sum by $52!$, assuming that where $n$ appears it is supposed to be $k$.
    – Misha Lavrov
    16 mins ago










  • I made another edit @Henry.
    – Hello_World
    15 mins ago
















  • Your sum involves products of positive integers so will be more than $frac12$ and is indeed more than $8 times 10^52$
    – Henry
    21 mins ago











  • I have made an edit.
    – Hello_World
    19 mins ago










  • Divided by $52!$ is it about $10^-15$
    – Henry
    18 mins ago










  • @Henry Actually, I get $frac12$ when I divide the sum by $52!$, assuming that where $n$ appears it is supposed to be $k$.
    – Misha Lavrov
    16 mins ago










  • I made another edit @Henry.
    – Hello_World
    15 mins ago















Your sum involves products of positive integers so will be more than $frac12$ and is indeed more than $8 times 10^52$
– Henry
21 mins ago





Your sum involves products of positive integers so will be more than $frac12$ and is indeed more than $8 times 10^52$
– Henry
21 mins ago













I have made an edit.
– Hello_World
19 mins ago




I have made an edit.
– Hello_World
19 mins ago












Divided by $52!$ is it about $10^-15$
– Henry
18 mins ago




Divided by $52!$ is it about $10^-15$
– Henry
18 mins ago












@Henry Actually, I get $frac12$ when I divide the sum by $52!$, assuming that where $n$ appears it is supposed to be $k$.
– Misha Lavrov
16 mins ago




@Henry Actually, I get $frac12$ when I divide the sum by $52!$, assuming that where $n$ appears it is supposed to be $k$.
– Misha Lavrov
16 mins ago












I made another edit @Henry.
– Hello_World
15 mins ago




I made another edit @Henry.
– Hello_World
15 mins ago










3 Answers
3






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up vote
4
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Use symmetry.



Let us write $P_1$ as the probability that the thirteenth spade comes before the thirteenth diamond, and let $P_2$ be the probability that the thirteenth diamond comes before the thirteenth spade.



Clearly, one of these must occur, and they can't both occur. Thus, we have that
$$P_1+P_2=1$$
Furthermore, since suits are arbitrary, we may exploit symmetry to say that $P_1=P_2$.



Thus, $P_1=P_2=1/2$.



Equivalently, the number of deck arrangements in which the last spade comes before the last diamond is $52!/2$.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    3
    down vote













    By symmetry, the probability is $frac 12$






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      By symmetry, the probability is $frac12$.



      Formally, we may biject the deck orderings where the last spade comes out first, with the deck orderings where the last diamond comes out first, by the involution that switches $Aspadesuit$ with $Adiamondsuit$, $2spadesuit$ with $2diamondsuit$, ..., $Kspadesuit$ with $Kdiamondsuit$. So there must be $frac12 cdot 52!$ orderings of each kind, which makes the probability $frac12$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        up vote
        4
        down vote













        Use symmetry.



        Let us write $P_1$ as the probability that the thirteenth spade comes before the thirteenth diamond, and let $P_2$ be the probability that the thirteenth diamond comes before the thirteenth spade.



        Clearly, one of these must occur, and they can't both occur. Thus, we have that
        $$P_1+P_2=1$$
        Furthermore, since suits are arbitrary, we may exploit symmetry to say that $P_1=P_2$.



        Thus, $P_1=P_2=1/2$.



        Equivalently, the number of deck arrangements in which the last spade comes before the last diamond is $52!/2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          up vote
          4
          down vote













          Use symmetry.



          Let us write $P_1$ as the probability that the thirteenth spade comes before the thirteenth diamond, and let $P_2$ be the probability that the thirteenth diamond comes before the thirteenth spade.



          Clearly, one of these must occur, and they can't both occur. Thus, we have that
          $$P_1+P_2=1$$
          Furthermore, since suits are arbitrary, we may exploit symmetry to say that $P_1=P_2$.



          Thus, $P_1=P_2=1/2$.



          Equivalently, the number of deck arrangements in which the last spade comes before the last diamond is $52!/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            Use symmetry.



            Let us write $P_1$ as the probability that the thirteenth spade comes before the thirteenth diamond, and let $P_2$ be the probability that the thirteenth diamond comes before the thirteenth spade.



            Clearly, one of these must occur, and they can't both occur. Thus, we have that
            $$P_1+P_2=1$$
            Furthermore, since suits are arbitrary, we may exploit symmetry to say that $P_1=P_2$.



            Thus, $P_1=P_2=1/2$.



            Equivalently, the number of deck arrangements in which the last spade comes before the last diamond is $52!/2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Use symmetry.



            Let us write $P_1$ as the probability that the thirteenth spade comes before the thirteenth diamond, and let $P_2$ be the probability that the thirteenth diamond comes before the thirteenth spade.



            Clearly, one of these must occur, and they can't both occur. Thus, we have that
            $$P_1+P_2=1$$
            Furthermore, since suits are arbitrary, we may exploit symmetry to say that $P_1=P_2$.



            Thus, $P_1=P_2=1/2$.



            Equivalently, the number of deck arrangements in which the last spade comes before the last diamond is $52!/2$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 17 mins ago

























            answered 27 mins ago









            Frpzzd

            17.6k63491




            17.6k63491




















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                By symmetry, the probability is $frac 12$






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote













                  By symmetry, the probability is $frac 12$






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote









                    By symmetry, the probability is $frac 12$






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    By symmetry, the probability is $frac 12$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 27 mins ago









                    Ross Millikan

                    282k23191359




                    282k23191359




















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        By symmetry, the probability is $frac12$.



                        Formally, we may biject the deck orderings where the last spade comes out first, with the deck orderings where the last diamond comes out first, by the involution that switches $Aspadesuit$ with $Adiamondsuit$, $2spadesuit$ with $2diamondsuit$, ..., $Kspadesuit$ with $Kdiamondsuit$. So there must be $frac12 cdot 52!$ orderings of each kind, which makes the probability $frac12$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          By symmetry, the probability is $frac12$.



                          Formally, we may biject the deck orderings where the last spade comes out first, with the deck orderings where the last diamond comes out first, by the involution that switches $Aspadesuit$ with $Adiamondsuit$, $2spadesuit$ with $2diamondsuit$, ..., $Kspadesuit$ with $Kdiamondsuit$. So there must be $frac12 cdot 52!$ orderings of each kind, which makes the probability $frac12$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            By symmetry, the probability is $frac12$.



                            Formally, we may biject the deck orderings where the last spade comes out first, with the deck orderings where the last diamond comes out first, by the involution that switches $Aspadesuit$ with $Adiamondsuit$, $2spadesuit$ with $2diamondsuit$, ..., $Kspadesuit$ with $Kdiamondsuit$. So there must be $frac12 cdot 52!$ orderings of each kind, which makes the probability $frac12$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            By symmetry, the probability is $frac12$.



                            Formally, we may biject the deck orderings where the last spade comes out first, with the deck orderings where the last diamond comes out first, by the involution that switches $Aspadesuit$ with $Adiamondsuit$, $2spadesuit$ with $2diamondsuit$, ..., $Kspadesuit$ with $Kdiamondsuit$. So there must be $frac12 cdot 52!$ orderings of each kind, which makes the probability $frac12$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered 27 mins ago









                            Misha Lavrov

                            38.7k55195




                            38.7k55195



























                                 

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