Construct a real valued function which takes zero on integers and such that image of function is not closed.

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I am trying to construct a continuous real valued function $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ which takes zero on all integer points(that is $f(k)=0$ for all $kin mathbbZ$) and Image(f) is not closed in $mathbbR$



I had $f(x)=sin(pi x) $ in mind. But image of $f(x)$ is closed. enter image description here



I have a feeling that we can use some clever idea to modify this function such that it satisfy our given condition.










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    favorite












    I am trying to construct a continuous real valued function $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ which takes zero on all integer points(that is $f(k)=0$ for all $kin mathbbZ$) and Image(f) is not closed in $mathbbR$



    I had $f(x)=sin(pi x) $ in mind. But image of $f(x)$ is closed. enter image description here



    I have a feeling that we can use some clever idea to modify this function such that it satisfy our given condition.










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      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      I am trying to construct a continuous real valued function $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ which takes zero on all integer points(that is $f(k)=0$ for all $kin mathbbZ$) and Image(f) is not closed in $mathbbR$



      I had $f(x)=sin(pi x) $ in mind. But image of $f(x)$ is closed. enter image description here



      I have a feeling that we can use some clever idea to modify this function such that it satisfy our given condition.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I am trying to construct a continuous real valued function $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ which takes zero on all integer points(that is $f(k)=0$ for all $kin mathbbZ$) and Image(f) is not closed in $mathbbR$



      I had $f(x)=sin(pi x) $ in mind. But image of $f(x)$ is closed. enter image description here



      I have a feeling that we can use some clever idea to modify this function such that it satisfy our given condition.







      real-analysis general-topology functions continuity






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      edited 5 mins ago









      Parcly Taxel

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      36.3k136994










      asked 57 mins ago









      StammeringMathematician

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          2 Answers
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          For each $n neq 0$ draw the triangle with vertices $(n,0),(n+1,0)$ and $(n+frac 1 2, 1-frac 1 n)$. You will immediately see how to construct an example. [You will get a function whose range contains $1-frac 1 n$ for each $n$ but does not contain $1$].






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            If $f$ verifies the desired propery, its restriction $f|_[n,n+1]$ gives a continuous function on $[n,n+1]$ that is zero on the edges of the interval, for any $n in mathbbZ$. Reciprocally, if we have $f_n : [n,n+1] to mathbbR$ continuous with $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$ for each integer $n$, by the gluing lemma this gives a continuous function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ with $f(n) = f_n(n) = 0$. This means that we can approach the problem somewhat 'locally', i.e. we can fix an interval $[n,n+1]$. Now, the function



            $$
            f_n (t) = mu_nsin(pi(t-n))
            $$



            takes values on $mu_n[-1,1] = [-mu_n,mu_n]$ and $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$. Thus, the family $(f_n)_n$ induces a continuous function $f$ that vanishes at $mathbbZ$ and



            $$
            f(mathbbR) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ f_n([n,n+1]) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n]
            $$



            so the problem reduces to choosing a sequence $(mu_n)_n$ so that the former union is open. One possible choice is $mu_n = 1-frac1n$ so that



            $$
            f(mathbbR) = bigcup_nin mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n] = bigcup_nin mathbbN[-1+frac1n,1-frac1n] = (-1,1).
            $$






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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              up vote
              3
              down vote













              For each $n neq 0$ draw the triangle with vertices $(n,0),(n+1,0)$ and $(n+frac 1 2, 1-frac 1 n)$. You will immediately see how to construct an example. [You will get a function whose range contains $1-frac 1 n$ for each $n$ but does not contain $1$].






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                For each $n neq 0$ draw the triangle with vertices $(n,0),(n+1,0)$ and $(n+frac 1 2, 1-frac 1 n)$. You will immediately see how to construct an example. [You will get a function whose range contains $1-frac 1 n$ for each $n$ but does not contain $1$].






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  For each $n neq 0$ draw the triangle with vertices $(n,0),(n+1,0)$ and $(n+frac 1 2, 1-frac 1 n)$. You will immediately see how to construct an example. [You will get a function whose range contains $1-frac 1 n$ for each $n$ but does not contain $1$].






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  For each $n neq 0$ draw the triangle with vertices $(n,0),(n+1,0)$ and $(n+frac 1 2, 1-frac 1 n)$. You will immediately see how to construct an example. [You will get a function whose range contains $1-frac 1 n$ for each $n$ but does not contain $1$].







                  share|cite|improve this answer












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                  answered 46 mins ago









                  Kavi Rama Murthy

                  31.5k31543




                  31.5k31543




















                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote













                      If $f$ verifies the desired propery, its restriction $f|_[n,n+1]$ gives a continuous function on $[n,n+1]$ that is zero on the edges of the interval, for any $n in mathbbZ$. Reciprocally, if we have $f_n : [n,n+1] to mathbbR$ continuous with $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$ for each integer $n$, by the gluing lemma this gives a continuous function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ with $f(n) = f_n(n) = 0$. This means that we can approach the problem somewhat 'locally', i.e. we can fix an interval $[n,n+1]$. Now, the function



                      $$
                      f_n (t) = mu_nsin(pi(t-n))
                      $$



                      takes values on $mu_n[-1,1] = [-mu_n,mu_n]$ and $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$. Thus, the family $(f_n)_n$ induces a continuous function $f$ that vanishes at $mathbbZ$ and



                      $$
                      f(mathbbR) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ f_n([n,n+1]) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n]
                      $$



                      so the problem reduces to choosing a sequence $(mu_n)_n$ so that the former union is open. One possible choice is $mu_n = 1-frac1n$ so that



                      $$
                      f(mathbbR) = bigcup_nin mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n] = bigcup_nin mathbbN[-1+frac1n,1-frac1n] = (-1,1).
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        If $f$ verifies the desired propery, its restriction $f|_[n,n+1]$ gives a continuous function on $[n,n+1]$ that is zero on the edges of the interval, for any $n in mathbbZ$. Reciprocally, if we have $f_n : [n,n+1] to mathbbR$ continuous with $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$ for each integer $n$, by the gluing lemma this gives a continuous function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ with $f(n) = f_n(n) = 0$. This means that we can approach the problem somewhat 'locally', i.e. we can fix an interval $[n,n+1]$. Now, the function



                        $$
                        f_n (t) = mu_nsin(pi(t-n))
                        $$



                        takes values on $mu_n[-1,1] = [-mu_n,mu_n]$ and $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$. Thus, the family $(f_n)_n$ induces a continuous function $f$ that vanishes at $mathbbZ$ and



                        $$
                        f(mathbbR) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ f_n([n,n+1]) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n]
                        $$



                        so the problem reduces to choosing a sequence $(mu_n)_n$ so that the former union is open. One possible choice is $mu_n = 1-frac1n$ so that



                        $$
                        f(mathbbR) = bigcup_nin mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n] = bigcup_nin mathbbN[-1+frac1n,1-frac1n] = (-1,1).
                        $$






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote









                          If $f$ verifies the desired propery, its restriction $f|_[n,n+1]$ gives a continuous function on $[n,n+1]$ that is zero on the edges of the interval, for any $n in mathbbZ$. Reciprocally, if we have $f_n : [n,n+1] to mathbbR$ continuous with $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$ for each integer $n$, by the gluing lemma this gives a continuous function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ with $f(n) = f_n(n) = 0$. This means that we can approach the problem somewhat 'locally', i.e. we can fix an interval $[n,n+1]$. Now, the function



                          $$
                          f_n (t) = mu_nsin(pi(t-n))
                          $$



                          takes values on $mu_n[-1,1] = [-mu_n,mu_n]$ and $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$. Thus, the family $(f_n)_n$ induces a continuous function $f$ that vanishes at $mathbbZ$ and



                          $$
                          f(mathbbR) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ f_n([n,n+1]) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n]
                          $$



                          so the problem reduces to choosing a sequence $(mu_n)_n$ so that the former union is open. One possible choice is $mu_n = 1-frac1n$ so that



                          $$
                          f(mathbbR) = bigcup_nin mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n] = bigcup_nin mathbbN[-1+frac1n,1-frac1n] = (-1,1).
                          $$






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          If $f$ verifies the desired propery, its restriction $f|_[n,n+1]$ gives a continuous function on $[n,n+1]$ that is zero on the edges of the interval, for any $n in mathbbZ$. Reciprocally, if we have $f_n : [n,n+1] to mathbbR$ continuous with $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$ for each integer $n$, by the gluing lemma this gives a continuous function $f: mathbbR to mathbbR$ with $f(n) = f_n(n) = 0$. This means that we can approach the problem somewhat 'locally', i.e. we can fix an interval $[n,n+1]$. Now, the function



                          $$
                          f_n (t) = mu_nsin(pi(t-n))
                          $$



                          takes values on $mu_n[-1,1] = [-mu_n,mu_n]$ and $f_n(n) = f_n(n+1) = 0$. Thus, the family $(f_n)_n$ induces a continuous function $f$ that vanishes at $mathbbZ$ and



                          $$
                          f(mathbbR) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ f_n([n,n+1]) = bigcup_n in mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n]
                          $$



                          so the problem reduces to choosing a sequence $(mu_n)_n$ so that the former union is open. One possible choice is $mu_n = 1-frac1n$ so that



                          $$
                          f(mathbbR) = bigcup_nin mathbbZ[-mu_n,mu_n] = bigcup_nin mathbbN[-1+frac1n,1-frac1n] = (-1,1).
                          $$







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                          edited 26 mins ago

























                          answered 33 mins ago









                          Guido A.

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