The following series converge or diverge?

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Does the following series coverge or diverge?



$$sum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^loglog n$$



My attempts : I know that $log(log n) > 2$



So $displaystylesum_n=2^inftyfrac1(log n)^loglog nlesum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^2lesumfrac1n^2$



so the given series converges.



Is it correct?







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  • 1




    Check your inequalities, $ln n<n$ !!!
    – Nicolas FRANCOIS
    Aug 8 at 8:29










  • Since the terms are decreasing you can use the integral test. A simple substitution ($y=log x)$ will make it clear that the integral diverges.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 8 at 8:35














up vote
4
down vote

favorite












Does the following series coverge or diverge?



$$sum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^loglog n$$



My attempts : I know that $log(log n) > 2$



So $displaystylesum_n=2^inftyfrac1(log n)^loglog nlesum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^2lesumfrac1n^2$



so the given series converges.



Is it correct?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Check your inequalities, $ln n<n$ !!!
    – Nicolas FRANCOIS
    Aug 8 at 8:29










  • Since the terms are decreasing you can use the integral test. A simple substitution ($y=log x)$ will make it clear that the integral diverges.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 8 at 8:35












up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











Does the following series coverge or diverge?



$$sum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^loglog n$$



My attempts : I know that $log(log n) > 2$



So $displaystylesum_n=2^inftyfrac1(log n)^loglog nlesum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^2lesumfrac1n^2$



so the given series converges.



Is it correct?







share|cite|improve this question














Does the following series coverge or diverge?



$$sum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^loglog n$$



My attempts : I know that $log(log n) > 2$



So $displaystylesum_n=2^inftyfrac1(log n)^loglog nlesum_n=2^infty frac1(log n)^2lesumfrac1n^2$



so the given series converges.



Is it correct?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 8 at 8:49









Bernard

111k635103




111k635103










asked Aug 8 at 8:27









stupid

646111




646111







  • 1




    Check your inequalities, $ln n<n$ !!!
    – Nicolas FRANCOIS
    Aug 8 at 8:29










  • Since the terms are decreasing you can use the integral test. A simple substitution ($y=log x)$ will make it clear that the integral diverges.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 8 at 8:35












  • 1




    Check your inequalities, $ln n<n$ !!!
    – Nicolas FRANCOIS
    Aug 8 at 8:29










  • Since the terms are decreasing you can use the integral test. A simple substitution ($y=log x)$ will make it clear that the integral diverges.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 8 at 8:35







1




1




Check your inequalities, $ln n<n$ !!!
– Nicolas FRANCOIS
Aug 8 at 8:29




Check your inequalities, $ln n<n$ !!!
– Nicolas FRANCOIS
Aug 8 at 8:29












Since the terms are decreasing you can use the integral test. A simple substitution ($y=log x)$ will make it clear that the integral diverges.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Aug 8 at 8:35




Since the terms are decreasing you can use the integral test. A simple substitution ($y=log x)$ will make it clear that the integral diverges.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Aug 8 at 8:35










2 Answers
2






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up vote
7
down vote



accepted










It's incorrect. We don't have $log n ge n$.



Instead, $(log n)^log log n = exp((log log n)^2) le exp(((log n)^1/2)^2) = n$ for $n ge N_0$, so $$sum_n=2^infty frac 1 (log n)^log log n ge C + sum_n=N_0^infty frac 1 n = infty$$




Implicit result used: $log x le x^varepsilon$ for sufficiently large $x$ (depending on $varepsilon$) for any $varepsilon > 0$.






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    up vote
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    down vote













    The series is divergent. Note that $a_n= frac1(log n)^loglog n=exp(-(loglog n)^2)$ is positive and decreasing and, by Cauchy condensation test, the convergence of the given series is equivalent to the convergence of
    $$sum_n=2^infty 2^nexp(-(loglog 2^n)^2)=sum_n=2^infty exp(nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2)$$
    which is divergent because $nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2to +infty$.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      7
      down vote



      accepted










      It's incorrect. We don't have $log n ge n$.



      Instead, $(log n)^log log n = exp((log log n)^2) le exp(((log n)^1/2)^2) = n$ for $n ge N_0$, so $$sum_n=2^infty frac 1 (log n)^log log n ge C + sum_n=N_0^infty frac 1 n = infty$$




      Implicit result used: $log x le x^varepsilon$ for sufficiently large $x$ (depending on $varepsilon$) for any $varepsilon > 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        7
        down vote



        accepted










        It's incorrect. We don't have $log n ge n$.



        Instead, $(log n)^log log n = exp((log log n)^2) le exp(((log n)^1/2)^2) = n$ for $n ge N_0$, so $$sum_n=2^infty frac 1 (log n)^log log n ge C + sum_n=N_0^infty frac 1 n = infty$$




        Implicit result used: $log x le x^varepsilon$ for sufficiently large $x$ (depending on $varepsilon$) for any $varepsilon > 0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted






          It's incorrect. We don't have $log n ge n$.



          Instead, $(log n)^log log n = exp((log log n)^2) le exp(((log n)^1/2)^2) = n$ for $n ge N_0$, so $$sum_n=2^infty frac 1 (log n)^log log n ge C + sum_n=N_0^infty frac 1 n = infty$$




          Implicit result used: $log x le x^varepsilon$ for sufficiently large $x$ (depending on $varepsilon$) for any $varepsilon > 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          It's incorrect. We don't have $log n ge n$.



          Instead, $(log n)^log log n = exp((log log n)^2) le exp(((log n)^1/2)^2) = n$ for $n ge N_0$, so $$sum_n=2^infty frac 1 (log n)^log log n ge C + sum_n=N_0^infty frac 1 n = infty$$




          Implicit result used: $log x le x^varepsilon$ for sufficiently large $x$ (depending on $varepsilon$) for any $varepsilon > 0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 8 at 8:32









          Kenny Lau

          19k2157




          19k2157




















              up vote
              3
              down vote













              The series is divergent. Note that $a_n= frac1(log n)^loglog n=exp(-(loglog n)^2)$ is positive and decreasing and, by Cauchy condensation test, the convergence of the given series is equivalent to the convergence of
              $$sum_n=2^infty 2^nexp(-(loglog 2^n)^2)=sum_n=2^infty exp(nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2)$$
              which is divergent because $nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2to +infty$.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                The series is divergent. Note that $a_n= frac1(log n)^loglog n=exp(-(loglog n)^2)$ is positive and decreasing and, by Cauchy condensation test, the convergence of the given series is equivalent to the convergence of
                $$sum_n=2^infty 2^nexp(-(loglog 2^n)^2)=sum_n=2^infty exp(nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2)$$
                which is divergent because $nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2to +infty$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  The series is divergent. Note that $a_n= frac1(log n)^loglog n=exp(-(loglog n)^2)$ is positive and decreasing and, by Cauchy condensation test, the convergence of the given series is equivalent to the convergence of
                  $$sum_n=2^infty 2^nexp(-(loglog 2^n)^2)=sum_n=2^infty exp(nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2)$$
                  which is divergent because $nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2to +infty$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  The series is divergent. Note that $a_n= frac1(log n)^loglog n=exp(-(loglog n)^2)$ is positive and decreasing and, by Cauchy condensation test, the convergence of the given series is equivalent to the convergence of
                  $$sum_n=2^infty 2^nexp(-(loglog 2^n)^2)=sum_n=2^infty exp(nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2)$$
                  which is divergent because $nlog 2-(log n+loglog 2)^2to +infty$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 8 at 9:00

























                  answered Aug 8 at 8:55









                  Robert Z

                  85.1k1055123




                  85.1k1055123



























                       

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