Some interesting observations on a sum of reciprocals

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This recent question is the motivation for this post.





Consider the following equation $$frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k=frac1x-k-1$$ where $k>1$.



My claims:



  1. There are $k$ solutions, all of which are real.


  2. Let $x_min$ be the minimum value of these $k$ solutions. Then as $ktoinfty$, $x_min$ converges. (If it does, to what value does it converge?)


  3. As $ktoinfty$, all of the solutions get closer and closer to an integer, which is bounded below. Furthermore, these integers will be $1, 2, 3, cdots, k-1, k+1$.




To see these patterns, I provide the solutions of $x$ below. I used W|A for $kge4$. The values in $colorbluetextblue$ are those of $x_min$.



$$beginarrayck&2&3&4&5&6\hline x&4.414&4.879&5.691&6.592&7.530\&colorblue1.585&2.652&3.686&4.701&5.722\&&colorblue1.468&2.545&3.588&4.615\&&&colorblue1.411&2.487&3.531\&&&&colorblue1.376&2.449\&&&&&colorblue1.352endarray$$



Also, when $k=2$, the polynomial in question is $x^2-6x+7$, and when $k=3$, it is $x^3-9x^2+24x-19$.



The reason why I think $x_min$ converges is because the difference between the current one and the previous gets smaller and smaller as $k$ increases.





Are my claims true?








share|cite|improve this question






















  • It is easy to prove that it has at least $k-1$ distinct real soutions
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:22










  • and also it is true that $1<x_min<2$ for every $k$ and it converges to 1
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:24











  • @Exodd: if you do that you know it has $k$ distinct solutions because of the limits of each side as $x to pm infty$
    – Ross Millikan
    Aug 7 at 14:27










  • The method I used (removing the asymptotes) has been the basis of significant improvements in chemical engineering calculations (in particular for the so-called Rachford-Rice and Underwood equations). I have published quite a lor of papers for these. I had a lot of fun with your (may I confess that I cannot resist an equation ?). Cheers.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 8 at 8:05











  • I updated my answer for some improvements. Cheers and thanks for the problem.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 10 at 8:05














up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4












This recent question is the motivation for this post.





Consider the following equation $$frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k=frac1x-k-1$$ where $k>1$.



My claims:



  1. There are $k$ solutions, all of which are real.


  2. Let $x_min$ be the minimum value of these $k$ solutions. Then as $ktoinfty$, $x_min$ converges. (If it does, to what value does it converge?)


  3. As $ktoinfty$, all of the solutions get closer and closer to an integer, which is bounded below. Furthermore, these integers will be $1, 2, 3, cdots, k-1, k+1$.




To see these patterns, I provide the solutions of $x$ below. I used W|A for $kge4$. The values in $colorbluetextblue$ are those of $x_min$.



$$beginarrayck&2&3&4&5&6\hline x&4.414&4.879&5.691&6.592&7.530\&colorblue1.585&2.652&3.686&4.701&5.722\&&colorblue1.468&2.545&3.588&4.615\&&&colorblue1.411&2.487&3.531\&&&&colorblue1.376&2.449\&&&&&colorblue1.352endarray$$



Also, when $k=2$, the polynomial in question is $x^2-6x+7$, and when $k=3$, it is $x^3-9x^2+24x-19$.



The reason why I think $x_min$ converges is because the difference between the current one and the previous gets smaller and smaller as $k$ increases.





Are my claims true?








share|cite|improve this question






















  • It is easy to prove that it has at least $k-1$ distinct real soutions
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:22










  • and also it is true that $1<x_min<2$ for every $k$ and it converges to 1
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:24











  • @Exodd: if you do that you know it has $k$ distinct solutions because of the limits of each side as $x to pm infty$
    – Ross Millikan
    Aug 7 at 14:27










  • The method I used (removing the asymptotes) has been the basis of significant improvements in chemical engineering calculations (in particular for the so-called Rachford-Rice and Underwood equations). I have published quite a lor of papers for these. I had a lot of fun with your (may I confess that I cannot resist an equation ?). Cheers.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 8 at 8:05











  • I updated my answer for some improvements. Cheers and thanks for the problem.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 10 at 8:05












up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4









up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4






4





This recent question is the motivation for this post.





Consider the following equation $$frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k=frac1x-k-1$$ where $k>1$.



My claims:



  1. There are $k$ solutions, all of which are real.


  2. Let $x_min$ be the minimum value of these $k$ solutions. Then as $ktoinfty$, $x_min$ converges. (If it does, to what value does it converge?)


  3. As $ktoinfty$, all of the solutions get closer and closer to an integer, which is bounded below. Furthermore, these integers will be $1, 2, 3, cdots, k-1, k+1$.




To see these patterns, I provide the solutions of $x$ below. I used W|A for $kge4$. The values in $colorbluetextblue$ are those of $x_min$.



$$beginarrayck&2&3&4&5&6\hline x&4.414&4.879&5.691&6.592&7.530\&colorblue1.585&2.652&3.686&4.701&5.722\&&colorblue1.468&2.545&3.588&4.615\&&&colorblue1.411&2.487&3.531\&&&&colorblue1.376&2.449\&&&&&colorblue1.352endarray$$



Also, when $k=2$, the polynomial in question is $x^2-6x+7$, and when $k=3$, it is $x^3-9x^2+24x-19$.



The reason why I think $x_min$ converges is because the difference between the current one and the previous gets smaller and smaller as $k$ increases.





Are my claims true?








share|cite|improve this question














This recent question is the motivation for this post.





Consider the following equation $$frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k=frac1x-k-1$$ where $k>1$.



My claims:



  1. There are $k$ solutions, all of which are real.


  2. Let $x_min$ be the minimum value of these $k$ solutions. Then as $ktoinfty$, $x_min$ converges. (If it does, to what value does it converge?)


  3. As $ktoinfty$, all of the solutions get closer and closer to an integer, which is bounded below. Furthermore, these integers will be $1, 2, 3, cdots, k-1, k+1$.




To see these patterns, I provide the solutions of $x$ below. I used W|A for $kge4$. The values in $colorbluetextblue$ are those of $x_min$.



$$beginarrayck&2&3&4&5&6\hline x&4.414&4.879&5.691&6.592&7.530\&colorblue1.585&2.652&3.686&4.701&5.722\&&colorblue1.468&2.545&3.588&4.615\&&&colorblue1.411&2.487&3.531\&&&&colorblue1.376&2.449\&&&&&colorblue1.352endarray$$



Also, when $k=2$, the polynomial in question is $x^2-6x+7$, and when $k=3$, it is $x^3-9x^2+24x-19$.



The reason why I think $x_min$ converges is because the difference between the current one and the previous gets smaller and smaller as $k$ increases.





Are my claims true?










share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 7 at 15:04

























asked Aug 7 at 14:15









TheSimpliFire

10.5k62053




10.5k62053











  • It is easy to prove that it has at least $k-1$ distinct real soutions
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:22










  • and also it is true that $1<x_min<2$ for every $k$ and it converges to 1
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:24











  • @Exodd: if you do that you know it has $k$ distinct solutions because of the limits of each side as $x to pm infty$
    – Ross Millikan
    Aug 7 at 14:27










  • The method I used (removing the asymptotes) has been the basis of significant improvements in chemical engineering calculations (in particular for the so-called Rachford-Rice and Underwood equations). I have published quite a lor of papers for these. I had a lot of fun with your (may I confess that I cannot resist an equation ?). Cheers.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 8 at 8:05











  • I updated my answer for some improvements. Cheers and thanks for the problem.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 10 at 8:05
















  • It is easy to prove that it has at least $k-1$ distinct real soutions
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:22










  • and also it is true that $1<x_min<2$ for every $k$ and it converges to 1
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:24











  • @Exodd: if you do that you know it has $k$ distinct solutions because of the limits of each side as $x to pm infty$
    – Ross Millikan
    Aug 7 at 14:27










  • The method I used (removing the asymptotes) has been the basis of significant improvements in chemical engineering calculations (in particular for the so-called Rachford-Rice and Underwood equations). I have published quite a lor of papers for these. I had a lot of fun with your (may I confess that I cannot resist an equation ?). Cheers.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 8 at 8:05











  • I updated my answer for some improvements. Cheers and thanks for the problem.
    – Claude Leibovici
    Aug 10 at 8:05















It is easy to prove that it has at least $k-1$ distinct real soutions
– Exodd
Aug 7 at 14:22




It is easy to prove that it has at least $k-1$ distinct real soutions
– Exodd
Aug 7 at 14:22












and also it is true that $1<x_min<2$ for every $k$ and it converges to 1
– Exodd
Aug 7 at 14:24





and also it is true that $1<x_min<2$ for every $k$ and it converges to 1
– Exodd
Aug 7 at 14:24













@Exodd: if you do that you know it has $k$ distinct solutions because of the limits of each side as $x to pm infty$
– Ross Millikan
Aug 7 at 14:27




@Exodd: if you do that you know it has $k$ distinct solutions because of the limits of each side as $x to pm infty$
– Ross Millikan
Aug 7 at 14:27












The method I used (removing the asymptotes) has been the basis of significant improvements in chemical engineering calculations (in particular for the so-called Rachford-Rice and Underwood equations). I have published quite a lor of papers for these. I had a lot of fun with your (may I confess that I cannot resist an equation ?). Cheers.
– Claude Leibovici
Aug 8 at 8:05





The method I used (removing the asymptotes) has been the basis of significant improvements in chemical engineering calculations (in particular for the so-called Rachford-Rice and Underwood equations). I have published quite a lor of papers for these. I had a lot of fun with your (may I confess that I cannot resist an equation ?). Cheers.
– Claude Leibovici
Aug 8 at 8:05













I updated my answer for some improvements. Cheers and thanks for the problem.
– Claude Leibovici
Aug 10 at 8:05




I updated my answer for some improvements. Cheers and thanks for the problem.
– Claude Leibovici
Aug 10 at 8:05










3 Answers
3






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up vote
11
down vote



accepted










Both your claims are true.



if you call
$$
f(x) = frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1
$$
then $f(1^+) = +infty$, $f(2^-) = -infty$ and $f$ is continuous in $(1,2)$, so it has a root in $(1,2)$.
The same you can say about $(2,3)$, $(3,4), cdots, (k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ real distinct roots. $f$ is also equivalent to a $k$-degree polynomial with the same root, but a $k$-degree polynomial with $k-1$ real roots has in reality $k$ real roots.



The last root lies in $(k+1,+infty)$, since $f(k+1^+) = -infty$ and $f(+infty) = +infty$.



The least root $x_min$ must lie in $(1,2)$, since $f(x)<0$ for every $x<1$. Moreover,
$$
f(x) = 0implies x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
$$
and knowing $1<x<2$, we infer $frac1x-k-1>frac1x-2$ and
$$
1<x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
< 1 - frac1frac1x-3+cdots+frac1x-kto 1
$$
so $x_min$ converges to $1$




About the third claim, notice that you may repeat the same argument for any root except the biggest. Let us say that $x_r$ is the $r-th$ root, with $r<k$, and we know that $r<x_r<r+1$.
$$
f(x_r) = 0implies x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
$$
but $frac1x_r-k-1>frac1x_r-1$ holds, so
$$
r<x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
< r - frac1frac1x_r-2+cdots+frac1x_r-kto r
$$
so $x_r$ converges to $r$.



For the biggest root, we know $k+1<x_k$ and
$$
f(x_k) = 0implies k+1 < x_k = k+1 + frac1frac1x_k-1+cdots+frac1x_k-k to k+1
$$






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
    – Simply Beautiful Art
    Aug 7 at 14:52










  • I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:57











  • @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
    – TheSimpliFire
    Aug 7 at 14:59











  • Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
    – Simply Beautiful Art
    Aug 7 at 15:00










  • Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 15:00

















up vote
5
down vote













For the base case,
$$tag1f_2(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2-frac1x-3, $$
one readily verifies that there is a root in $(1,2)$ and a root $x^*$ in $(3,+infty)$.



If we multiply out the denominators of
$$f_k(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2+ldots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1,$$
we obtain the equation
$$tag2(x-1)(x-2)cdots(x-k-1)f_k(x)=0,$$
which is a polynomial of degree (at most) $k$, so we expect $k$ solutions, but some of these may be complex or repeated or happen to be among $1,2,ldots, k+1$ and thus not allowed for the original equation.
But $f_k(x)$
has simple poles with jumps from $-infty$ to $+infty$ at $1,2,3,ldots, k$, and a simple pole with jump from $+infty$ to $-infty$ at $k+1$, and is continuous otherwise. It follows that there is (at least) one real root in $(1,2)$, at least one in in $(2,3)$, etc. up to $(k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ distinct real roots.
Additionally, for $x>k+1$ and $kge2$, we have
$$f_k(x)ge f_2(x+k-2).$$
It follows that there is another real root between $k+1$ and $x^*+k-2$.
So indeed, we have $k$ distinct real roots.



From the aboive, the smallest root is always in $(1,2)$.
If follows from $f_k+1(x)>f_k(x)$ for $xin(1,2)$ and the fact that all $f_k$ are strictly decreasing there, that $x_min $ decreases with increasing $k$. As a decreasing bounded sequence, it does have a limit.






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    up vote
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    down vote













    Considering that you look for the first zero of function
    $$f(x)=sum_i=1^k frac 1x-i-frac1 x-k-1$$ which can write, using harmonic numbers,
    $$f(x)=H_-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1$$ remove the asymptotes using
    $$g(x)=(x-1)(x-2)f(x)=2x-3+(x-1)(x-2)left(H_2-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1 right)$$ You can approximate the solution using a Taylor expansion around $x=1$ and get
    $$g(x)=-1+(x-1) left(-frac1k+psi ^(0)(k)+gamma
    +1right)+Oleft((x-1)^2right)$$ Ignoring the higher order terms, this gives as an approximation
    $$x_est=1+frackkleft(gamma +1+ psi ^(0)(k)right)-1$$ which seems to be "decent" (and, for sure, confirms your claims).
    $$left(
    beginarrayccc
    k & x_est & x_sol \
    2 & 1.66667 & 1.58579 \
    3 & 1.46154 & 1.46791 \
    4 & 1.38710 & 1.41082 \
    5 & 1.34682 & 1.37605 \
    6 & 1.32086 & 1.35209 \
    7 & 1.30238 & 1.33430 \
    8 & 1.28836 & 1.32040 \
    9 & 1.27726 & 1.30914 \
    10 & 1.26817 & 1.29976 \
    11 & 1.26055 & 1.29179 \
    12 & 1.25403 & 1.28489 \
    13 & 1.24837 & 1.27884 \
    14 & 1.24339 & 1.27347 \
    15 & 1.23895 & 1.26867 \
    16 & 1.23498 & 1.26433 \
    17 & 1.23138 & 1.26039 \
    18 & 1.22810 & 1.25678 \
    19 & 1.22510 & 1.25346 \
    20 & 1.22233 & 1.25039
    endarray
    right)$$ For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
    $$x_est=1+frac1log left(kright)+gamma +1$$



    For $k=1000$, the exact solution is $1.12955$ while the first approximation gives $1.11788$ and the second $1.11786$.



    Using such estimates would make Newton method converging quite fast (shown below for $k=1000$).



    $$left(
    beginarraycc
    n & x_n \
    0 & 1.117855442 \
    1 & 1.129429575 \
    2 & 1.129545489 \
    3 & 1.129545500
    endarray
    right)$$



    Edit



    We can obtain much better approximations if, instead of using a Taylor expansion of $g(x)$ to $Oleft((x-1)^2right)$, we build the simplest $[1,1]$ Padé approximant (which is equivalent to an $Oleft((x-1)^3right)$ Taylor expansion). This would lead to
    $$x=1+ frac6 (k+k (psi ^(0)(k)+gamma )-1)pi ^2 k+6 (k+gamma (gamma
    k+k-2)-1)-6 k psi ^(1)(k)+6 psi ^(0)(k) (2 gamma k+k+k psi
    ^(0)(k)-2)$$ Repeating the same calculations as above, the results are
    $$left(
    beginarrayccc
    k & x_est & x_sol \
    2 & 1.60000 & 1.58579 \
    3 & 1.46429 & 1.46791 \
    4 & 1.40435 & 1.41082 \
    5 & 1.36900 & 1.37605 \
    6 & 1.34504 & 1.35209 \
    7 & 1.32741 & 1.33430 \
    8 & 1.31371 & 1.32040 \
    9 & 1.30266 & 1.30914 \
    10 & 1.29348 & 1.29976 \
    11 & 1.28569 & 1.29179 \
    12 & 1.27897 & 1.28489 \
    13 & 1.27308 & 1.27884 \
    14 & 1.26787 & 1.27347 \
    15 & 1.26320 & 1.26867 \
    16 & 1.25899 & 1.26433 \
    17 & 1.25516 & 1.26039 \
    18 & 1.25166 & 1.25678 \
    19 & 1.24844 & 1.25346 \
    20 & 1.24547 & 1.25039
    endarray
    right)$$



    For $k=1000$, this would give as an estimate $1.12829$ for an exact value of $1.12955$.



    For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
    $$x_est=1+frac6 (log (k)+gamma +1)6 log (k) (log (k)+2 gamma +1)+pi ^2+6 gamma
    (1+gamma )+6$$






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
      – TheSimpliFire
      Aug 8 at 8:10











    • @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
      – Claude Leibovici
      Aug 8 at 8:18










    • Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
      – TheSimpliFire
      Aug 8 at 8:20











    • @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Aug 8 at 8:22










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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted










    Both your claims are true.



    if you call
    $$
    f(x) = frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1
    $$
    then $f(1^+) = +infty$, $f(2^-) = -infty$ and $f$ is continuous in $(1,2)$, so it has a root in $(1,2)$.
    The same you can say about $(2,3)$, $(3,4), cdots, (k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ real distinct roots. $f$ is also equivalent to a $k$-degree polynomial with the same root, but a $k$-degree polynomial with $k-1$ real roots has in reality $k$ real roots.



    The last root lies in $(k+1,+infty)$, since $f(k+1^+) = -infty$ and $f(+infty) = +infty$.



    The least root $x_min$ must lie in $(1,2)$, since $f(x)<0$ for every $x<1$. Moreover,
    $$
    f(x) = 0implies x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    $$
    and knowing $1<x<2$, we infer $frac1x-k-1>frac1x-2$ and
    $$
    1<x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    < 1 - frac1frac1x-3+cdots+frac1x-kto 1
    $$
    so $x_min$ converges to $1$




    About the third claim, notice that you may repeat the same argument for any root except the biggest. Let us say that $x_r$ is the $r-th$ root, with $r<k$, and we know that $r<x_r<r+1$.
    $$
    f(x_r) = 0implies x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    $$
    but $frac1x_r-k-1>frac1x_r-1$ holds, so
    $$
    r<x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    < r - frac1frac1x_r-2+cdots+frac1x_r-kto r
    $$
    so $x_r$ converges to $r$.



    For the biggest root, we know $k+1<x_k$ and
    $$
    f(x_k) = 0implies k+1 < x_k = k+1 + frac1frac1x_k-1+cdots+frac1x_k-k to k+1
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 14:52










    • I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 14:57











    • @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
      – TheSimpliFire
      Aug 7 at 14:59











    • Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 15:00










    • Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 15:00














    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted










    Both your claims are true.



    if you call
    $$
    f(x) = frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1
    $$
    then $f(1^+) = +infty$, $f(2^-) = -infty$ and $f$ is continuous in $(1,2)$, so it has a root in $(1,2)$.
    The same you can say about $(2,3)$, $(3,4), cdots, (k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ real distinct roots. $f$ is also equivalent to a $k$-degree polynomial with the same root, but a $k$-degree polynomial with $k-1$ real roots has in reality $k$ real roots.



    The last root lies in $(k+1,+infty)$, since $f(k+1^+) = -infty$ and $f(+infty) = +infty$.



    The least root $x_min$ must lie in $(1,2)$, since $f(x)<0$ for every $x<1$. Moreover,
    $$
    f(x) = 0implies x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    $$
    and knowing $1<x<2$, we infer $frac1x-k-1>frac1x-2$ and
    $$
    1<x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    < 1 - frac1frac1x-3+cdots+frac1x-kto 1
    $$
    so $x_min$ converges to $1$




    About the third claim, notice that you may repeat the same argument for any root except the biggest. Let us say that $x_r$ is the $r-th$ root, with $r<k$, and we know that $r<x_r<r+1$.
    $$
    f(x_r) = 0implies x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    $$
    but $frac1x_r-k-1>frac1x_r-1$ holds, so
    $$
    r<x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    < r - frac1frac1x_r-2+cdots+frac1x_r-kto r
    $$
    so $x_r$ converges to $r$.



    For the biggest root, we know $k+1<x_k$ and
    $$
    f(x_k) = 0implies k+1 < x_k = k+1 + frac1frac1x_k-1+cdots+frac1x_k-k to k+1
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 14:52










    • I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 14:57











    • @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
      – TheSimpliFire
      Aug 7 at 14:59











    • Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 15:00










    • Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 15:00












    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted






    Both your claims are true.



    if you call
    $$
    f(x) = frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1
    $$
    then $f(1^+) = +infty$, $f(2^-) = -infty$ and $f$ is continuous in $(1,2)$, so it has a root in $(1,2)$.
    The same you can say about $(2,3)$, $(3,4), cdots, (k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ real distinct roots. $f$ is also equivalent to a $k$-degree polynomial with the same root, but a $k$-degree polynomial with $k-1$ real roots has in reality $k$ real roots.



    The last root lies in $(k+1,+infty)$, since $f(k+1^+) = -infty$ and $f(+infty) = +infty$.



    The least root $x_min$ must lie in $(1,2)$, since $f(x)<0$ for every $x<1$. Moreover,
    $$
    f(x) = 0implies x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    $$
    and knowing $1<x<2$, we infer $frac1x-k-1>frac1x-2$ and
    $$
    1<x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    < 1 - frac1frac1x-3+cdots+frac1x-kto 1
    $$
    so $x_min$ converges to $1$




    About the third claim, notice that you may repeat the same argument for any root except the biggest. Let us say that $x_r$ is the $r-th$ root, with $r<k$, and we know that $r<x_r<r+1$.
    $$
    f(x_r) = 0implies x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    $$
    but $frac1x_r-k-1>frac1x_r-1$ holds, so
    $$
    r<x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    < r - frac1frac1x_r-2+cdots+frac1x_r-kto r
    $$
    so $x_r$ converges to $r$.



    For the biggest root, we know $k+1<x_k$ and
    $$
    f(x_k) = 0implies k+1 < x_k = k+1 + frac1frac1x_k-1+cdots+frac1x_k-k to k+1
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Both your claims are true.



    if you call
    $$
    f(x) = frac1x-1+frac1x-2+cdots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1
    $$
    then $f(1^+) = +infty$, $f(2^-) = -infty$ and $f$ is continuous in $(1,2)$, so it has a root in $(1,2)$.
    The same you can say about $(2,3)$, $(3,4), cdots, (k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ real distinct roots. $f$ is also equivalent to a $k$-degree polynomial with the same root, but a $k$-degree polynomial with $k-1$ real roots has in reality $k$ real roots.



    The last root lies in $(k+1,+infty)$, since $f(k+1^+) = -infty$ and $f(+infty) = +infty$.



    The least root $x_min$ must lie in $(1,2)$, since $f(x)<0$ for every $x<1$. Moreover,
    $$
    f(x) = 0implies x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    $$
    and knowing $1<x<2$, we infer $frac1x-k-1>frac1x-2$ and
    $$
    1<x = 1 + frac1frac1x-k-1-frac1x-2-cdots-frac1x-k
    < 1 - frac1frac1x-3+cdots+frac1x-kto 1
    $$
    so $x_min$ converges to $1$




    About the third claim, notice that you may repeat the same argument for any root except the biggest. Let us say that $x_r$ is the $r-th$ root, with $r<k$, and we know that $r<x_r<r+1$.
    $$
    f(x_r) = 0implies x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    $$
    but $frac1x_r-k-1>frac1x_r-1$ holds, so
    $$
    r<x_r = r + frac1frac1x_r-k-1-frac1x_r-1-cdots-frac1x_r-k
    < r - frac1frac1x_r-2+cdots+frac1x_r-kto r
    $$
    so $x_r$ converges to $r$.



    For the biggest root, we know $k+1<x_k$ and
    $$
    f(x_k) = 0implies k+1 < x_k = k+1 + frac1frac1x_k-1+cdots+frac1x_k-k to k+1
    $$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Aug 7 at 16:46









    TheSimpliFire

    10.5k62053




    10.5k62053










    answered Aug 7 at 14:48









    Exodd

    5,4751222




    5,4751222











    • I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 14:52










    • I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 14:57











    • @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
      – TheSimpliFire
      Aug 7 at 14:59











    • Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 15:00










    • Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 15:00
















    • I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 14:52










    • I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 14:57











    • @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
      – TheSimpliFire
      Aug 7 at 14:59











    • Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
      – Simply Beautiful Art
      Aug 7 at 15:00










    • Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
      – Exodd
      Aug 7 at 15:00















    I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
    – Simply Beautiful Art
    Aug 7 at 14:52




    I would've argued that the LHS is continuous, monotone, and ranges from $-infty$ to $+infty$ between natural numbers, while the RHS is continuous and monotone, and since the LHS is asymptotically larger than the RHS as $xtoinfty$, there must be a solution $x>k+1$, where the LHS is less than the RHS. In any case, sound argument.
    – Simply Beautiful Art
    Aug 7 at 14:52












    I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:57





    I think they're quite equivalent. Now I'm wondering if $x_max$ converges to $k+1$
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 14:57













    @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
    – TheSimpliFire
    Aug 7 at 14:59





    @Exodd Nice proofs. The third claim of converging to integers extends the claim $x_min$ to all solutions of $x$. I strongly believe that it's true after plotting in Desmos, but I can't construct a rigorous proof for it.
    – TheSimpliFire
    Aug 7 at 14:59













    Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
    – Simply Beautiful Art
    Aug 7 at 15:00




    Hard to exactly say what that's supposed to mean, $k+1$ is a moving target :P
    – Simply Beautiful Art
    Aug 7 at 15:00












    Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 15:00




    Let's say $x_max(k)-k-1 = o_k(1)$
    – Exodd
    Aug 7 at 15:00










    up vote
    5
    down vote













    For the base case,
    $$tag1f_2(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2-frac1x-3, $$
    one readily verifies that there is a root in $(1,2)$ and a root $x^*$ in $(3,+infty)$.



    If we multiply out the denominators of
    $$f_k(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2+ldots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1,$$
    we obtain the equation
    $$tag2(x-1)(x-2)cdots(x-k-1)f_k(x)=0,$$
    which is a polynomial of degree (at most) $k$, so we expect $k$ solutions, but some of these may be complex or repeated or happen to be among $1,2,ldots, k+1$ and thus not allowed for the original equation.
    But $f_k(x)$
    has simple poles with jumps from $-infty$ to $+infty$ at $1,2,3,ldots, k$, and a simple pole with jump from $+infty$ to $-infty$ at $k+1$, and is continuous otherwise. It follows that there is (at least) one real root in $(1,2)$, at least one in in $(2,3)$, etc. up to $(k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ distinct real roots.
    Additionally, for $x>k+1$ and $kge2$, we have
    $$f_k(x)ge f_2(x+k-2).$$
    It follows that there is another real root between $k+1$ and $x^*+k-2$.
    So indeed, we have $k$ distinct real roots.



    From the aboive, the smallest root is always in $(1,2)$.
    If follows from $f_k+1(x)>f_k(x)$ for $xin(1,2)$ and the fact that all $f_k$ are strictly decreasing there, that $x_min $ decreases with increasing $k$. As a decreasing bounded sequence, it does have a limit.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      5
      down vote













      For the base case,
      $$tag1f_2(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2-frac1x-3, $$
      one readily verifies that there is a root in $(1,2)$ and a root $x^*$ in $(3,+infty)$.



      If we multiply out the denominators of
      $$f_k(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2+ldots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1,$$
      we obtain the equation
      $$tag2(x-1)(x-2)cdots(x-k-1)f_k(x)=0,$$
      which is a polynomial of degree (at most) $k$, so we expect $k$ solutions, but some of these may be complex or repeated or happen to be among $1,2,ldots, k+1$ and thus not allowed for the original equation.
      But $f_k(x)$
      has simple poles with jumps from $-infty$ to $+infty$ at $1,2,3,ldots, k$, and a simple pole with jump from $+infty$ to $-infty$ at $k+1$, and is continuous otherwise. It follows that there is (at least) one real root in $(1,2)$, at least one in in $(2,3)$, etc. up to $(k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ distinct real roots.
      Additionally, for $x>k+1$ and $kge2$, we have
      $$f_k(x)ge f_2(x+k-2).$$
      It follows that there is another real root between $k+1$ and $x^*+k-2$.
      So indeed, we have $k$ distinct real roots.



      From the aboive, the smallest root is always in $(1,2)$.
      If follows from $f_k+1(x)>f_k(x)$ for $xin(1,2)$ and the fact that all $f_k$ are strictly decreasing there, that $x_min $ decreases with increasing $k$. As a decreasing bounded sequence, it does have a limit.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        5
        down vote










        up vote
        5
        down vote









        For the base case,
        $$tag1f_2(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2-frac1x-3, $$
        one readily verifies that there is a root in $(1,2)$ and a root $x^*$ in $(3,+infty)$.



        If we multiply out the denominators of
        $$f_k(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2+ldots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1,$$
        we obtain the equation
        $$tag2(x-1)(x-2)cdots(x-k-1)f_k(x)=0,$$
        which is a polynomial of degree (at most) $k$, so we expect $k$ solutions, but some of these may be complex or repeated or happen to be among $1,2,ldots, k+1$ and thus not allowed for the original equation.
        But $f_k(x)$
        has simple poles with jumps from $-infty$ to $+infty$ at $1,2,3,ldots, k$, and a simple pole with jump from $+infty$ to $-infty$ at $k+1$, and is continuous otherwise. It follows that there is (at least) one real root in $(1,2)$, at least one in in $(2,3)$, etc. up to $(k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ distinct real roots.
        Additionally, for $x>k+1$ and $kge2$, we have
        $$f_k(x)ge f_2(x+k-2).$$
        It follows that there is another real root between $k+1$ and $x^*+k-2$.
        So indeed, we have $k$ distinct real roots.



        From the aboive, the smallest root is always in $(1,2)$.
        If follows from $f_k+1(x)>f_k(x)$ for $xin(1,2)$ and the fact that all $f_k$ are strictly decreasing there, that $x_min $ decreases with increasing $k$. As a decreasing bounded sequence, it does have a limit.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        For the base case,
        $$tag1f_2(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2-frac1x-3, $$
        one readily verifies that there is a root in $(1,2)$ and a root $x^*$ in $(3,+infty)$.



        If we multiply out the denominators of
        $$f_k(x)=frac1x-1+frac1x-2+ldots+frac1x-k-frac1x-k-1,$$
        we obtain the equation
        $$tag2(x-1)(x-2)cdots(x-k-1)f_k(x)=0,$$
        which is a polynomial of degree (at most) $k$, so we expect $k$ solutions, but some of these may be complex or repeated or happen to be among $1,2,ldots, k+1$ and thus not allowed for the original equation.
        But $f_k(x)$
        has simple poles with jumps from $-infty$ to $+infty$ at $1,2,3,ldots, k$, and a simple pole with jump from $+infty$ to $-infty$ at $k+1$, and is continuous otherwise. It follows that there is (at least) one real root in $(1,2)$, at least one in in $(2,3)$, etc. up to $(k-1,k)$, so there are at least $k-1$ distinct real roots.
        Additionally, for $x>k+1$ and $kge2$, we have
        $$f_k(x)ge f_2(x+k-2).$$
        It follows that there is another real root between $k+1$ and $x^*+k-2$.
        So indeed, we have $k$ distinct real roots.



        From the aboive, the smallest root is always in $(1,2)$.
        If follows from $f_k+1(x)>f_k(x)$ for $xin(1,2)$ and the fact that all $f_k$ are strictly decreasing there, that $x_min $ decreases with increasing $k$. As a decreasing bounded sequence, it does have a limit.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 7 at 14:52









        Hagen von Eitzen

        266k21259478




        266k21259478




















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Considering that you look for the first zero of function
            $$f(x)=sum_i=1^k frac 1x-i-frac1 x-k-1$$ which can write, using harmonic numbers,
            $$f(x)=H_-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1$$ remove the asymptotes using
            $$g(x)=(x-1)(x-2)f(x)=2x-3+(x-1)(x-2)left(H_2-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1 right)$$ You can approximate the solution using a Taylor expansion around $x=1$ and get
            $$g(x)=-1+(x-1) left(-frac1k+psi ^(0)(k)+gamma
            +1right)+Oleft((x-1)^2right)$$ Ignoring the higher order terms, this gives as an approximation
            $$x_est=1+frackkleft(gamma +1+ psi ^(0)(k)right)-1$$ which seems to be "decent" (and, for sure, confirms your claims).
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.66667 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46154 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.38710 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.34682 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.32086 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.30238 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.28836 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.27726 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.26817 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.26055 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.25403 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.24837 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.24339 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.23895 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.23498 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.23138 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.22810 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.22510 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.22233 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$ For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac1log left(kright)+gamma +1$$



            For $k=1000$, the exact solution is $1.12955$ while the first approximation gives $1.11788$ and the second $1.11786$.



            Using such estimates would make Newton method converging quite fast (shown below for $k=1000$).



            $$left(
            beginarraycc
            n & x_n \
            0 & 1.117855442 \
            1 & 1.129429575 \
            2 & 1.129545489 \
            3 & 1.129545500
            endarray
            right)$$



            Edit



            We can obtain much better approximations if, instead of using a Taylor expansion of $g(x)$ to $Oleft((x-1)^2right)$, we build the simplest $[1,1]$ Padé approximant (which is equivalent to an $Oleft((x-1)^3right)$ Taylor expansion). This would lead to
            $$x=1+ frac6 (k+k (psi ^(0)(k)+gamma )-1)pi ^2 k+6 (k+gamma (gamma
            k+k-2)-1)-6 k psi ^(1)(k)+6 psi ^(0)(k) (2 gamma k+k+k psi
            ^(0)(k)-2)$$ Repeating the same calculations as above, the results are
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.60000 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46429 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.40435 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.36900 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.34504 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.32741 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.31371 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.30266 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.29348 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.28569 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.27897 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.27308 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.26787 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.26320 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.25899 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.25516 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.25166 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.24844 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.24547 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$



            For $k=1000$, this would give as an estimate $1.12829$ for an exact value of $1.12955$.



            For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac6 (log (k)+gamma +1)6 log (k) (log (k)+2 gamma +1)+pi ^2+6 gamma
            (1+gamma )+6$$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:10











            • @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:18










            • Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:20











            • @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:22














            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Considering that you look for the first zero of function
            $$f(x)=sum_i=1^k frac 1x-i-frac1 x-k-1$$ which can write, using harmonic numbers,
            $$f(x)=H_-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1$$ remove the asymptotes using
            $$g(x)=(x-1)(x-2)f(x)=2x-3+(x-1)(x-2)left(H_2-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1 right)$$ You can approximate the solution using a Taylor expansion around $x=1$ and get
            $$g(x)=-1+(x-1) left(-frac1k+psi ^(0)(k)+gamma
            +1right)+Oleft((x-1)^2right)$$ Ignoring the higher order terms, this gives as an approximation
            $$x_est=1+frackkleft(gamma +1+ psi ^(0)(k)right)-1$$ which seems to be "decent" (and, for sure, confirms your claims).
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.66667 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46154 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.38710 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.34682 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.32086 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.30238 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.28836 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.27726 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.26817 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.26055 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.25403 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.24837 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.24339 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.23895 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.23498 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.23138 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.22810 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.22510 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.22233 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$ For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac1log left(kright)+gamma +1$$



            For $k=1000$, the exact solution is $1.12955$ while the first approximation gives $1.11788$ and the second $1.11786$.



            Using such estimates would make Newton method converging quite fast (shown below for $k=1000$).



            $$left(
            beginarraycc
            n & x_n \
            0 & 1.117855442 \
            1 & 1.129429575 \
            2 & 1.129545489 \
            3 & 1.129545500
            endarray
            right)$$



            Edit



            We can obtain much better approximations if, instead of using a Taylor expansion of $g(x)$ to $Oleft((x-1)^2right)$, we build the simplest $[1,1]$ Padé approximant (which is equivalent to an $Oleft((x-1)^3right)$ Taylor expansion). This would lead to
            $$x=1+ frac6 (k+k (psi ^(0)(k)+gamma )-1)pi ^2 k+6 (k+gamma (gamma
            k+k-2)-1)-6 k psi ^(1)(k)+6 psi ^(0)(k) (2 gamma k+k+k psi
            ^(0)(k)-2)$$ Repeating the same calculations as above, the results are
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.60000 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46429 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.40435 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.36900 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.34504 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.32741 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.31371 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.30266 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.29348 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.28569 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.27897 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.27308 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.26787 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.26320 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.25899 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.25516 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.25166 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.24844 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.24547 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$



            For $k=1000$, this would give as an estimate $1.12829$ for an exact value of $1.12955$.



            For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac6 (log (k)+gamma +1)6 log (k) (log (k)+2 gamma +1)+pi ^2+6 gamma
            (1+gamma )+6$$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:10











            • @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:18










            • Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:20











            • @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:22












            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            Considering that you look for the first zero of function
            $$f(x)=sum_i=1^k frac 1x-i-frac1 x-k-1$$ which can write, using harmonic numbers,
            $$f(x)=H_-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1$$ remove the asymptotes using
            $$g(x)=(x-1)(x-2)f(x)=2x-3+(x-1)(x-2)left(H_2-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1 right)$$ You can approximate the solution using a Taylor expansion around $x=1$ and get
            $$g(x)=-1+(x-1) left(-frac1k+psi ^(0)(k)+gamma
            +1right)+Oleft((x-1)^2right)$$ Ignoring the higher order terms, this gives as an approximation
            $$x_est=1+frackkleft(gamma +1+ psi ^(0)(k)right)-1$$ which seems to be "decent" (and, for sure, confirms your claims).
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.66667 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46154 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.38710 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.34682 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.32086 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.30238 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.28836 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.27726 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.26817 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.26055 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.25403 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.24837 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.24339 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.23895 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.23498 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.23138 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.22810 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.22510 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.22233 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$ For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac1log left(kright)+gamma +1$$



            For $k=1000$, the exact solution is $1.12955$ while the first approximation gives $1.11788$ and the second $1.11786$.



            Using such estimates would make Newton method converging quite fast (shown below for $k=1000$).



            $$left(
            beginarraycc
            n & x_n \
            0 & 1.117855442 \
            1 & 1.129429575 \
            2 & 1.129545489 \
            3 & 1.129545500
            endarray
            right)$$



            Edit



            We can obtain much better approximations if, instead of using a Taylor expansion of $g(x)$ to $Oleft((x-1)^2right)$, we build the simplest $[1,1]$ Padé approximant (which is equivalent to an $Oleft((x-1)^3right)$ Taylor expansion). This would lead to
            $$x=1+ frac6 (k+k (psi ^(0)(k)+gamma )-1)pi ^2 k+6 (k+gamma (gamma
            k+k-2)-1)-6 k psi ^(1)(k)+6 psi ^(0)(k) (2 gamma k+k+k psi
            ^(0)(k)-2)$$ Repeating the same calculations as above, the results are
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.60000 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46429 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.40435 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.36900 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.34504 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.32741 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.31371 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.30266 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.29348 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.28569 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.27897 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.27308 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.26787 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.26320 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.25899 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.25516 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.25166 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.24844 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.24547 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$



            For $k=1000$, this would give as an estimate $1.12829$ for an exact value of $1.12955$.



            For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac6 (log (k)+gamma +1)6 log (k) (log (k)+2 gamma +1)+pi ^2+6 gamma
            (1+gamma )+6$$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Considering that you look for the first zero of function
            $$f(x)=sum_i=1^k frac 1x-i-frac1 x-k-1$$ which can write, using harmonic numbers,
            $$f(x)=H_-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1$$ remove the asymptotes using
            $$g(x)=(x-1)(x-2)f(x)=2x-3+(x-1)(x-2)left(H_2-x-H_k-x-frac1x-k-1 right)$$ You can approximate the solution using a Taylor expansion around $x=1$ and get
            $$g(x)=-1+(x-1) left(-frac1k+psi ^(0)(k)+gamma
            +1right)+Oleft((x-1)^2right)$$ Ignoring the higher order terms, this gives as an approximation
            $$x_est=1+frackkleft(gamma +1+ psi ^(0)(k)right)-1$$ which seems to be "decent" (and, for sure, confirms your claims).
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.66667 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46154 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.38710 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.34682 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.32086 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.30238 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.28836 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.27726 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.26817 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.26055 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.25403 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.24837 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.24339 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.23895 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.23498 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.23138 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.22810 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.22510 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.22233 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$ For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac1log left(kright)+gamma +1$$



            For $k=1000$, the exact solution is $1.12955$ while the first approximation gives $1.11788$ and the second $1.11786$.



            Using such estimates would make Newton method converging quite fast (shown below for $k=1000$).



            $$left(
            beginarraycc
            n & x_n \
            0 & 1.117855442 \
            1 & 1.129429575 \
            2 & 1.129545489 \
            3 & 1.129545500
            endarray
            right)$$



            Edit



            We can obtain much better approximations if, instead of using a Taylor expansion of $g(x)$ to $Oleft((x-1)^2right)$, we build the simplest $[1,1]$ Padé approximant (which is equivalent to an $Oleft((x-1)^3right)$ Taylor expansion). This would lead to
            $$x=1+ frac6 (k+k (psi ^(0)(k)+gamma )-1)pi ^2 k+6 (k+gamma (gamma
            k+k-2)-1)-6 k psi ^(1)(k)+6 psi ^(0)(k) (2 gamma k+k+k psi
            ^(0)(k)-2)$$ Repeating the same calculations as above, the results are
            $$left(
            beginarrayccc
            k & x_est & x_sol \
            2 & 1.60000 & 1.58579 \
            3 & 1.46429 & 1.46791 \
            4 & 1.40435 & 1.41082 \
            5 & 1.36900 & 1.37605 \
            6 & 1.34504 & 1.35209 \
            7 & 1.32741 & 1.33430 \
            8 & 1.31371 & 1.32040 \
            9 & 1.30266 & 1.30914 \
            10 & 1.29348 & 1.29976 \
            11 & 1.28569 & 1.29179 \
            12 & 1.27897 & 1.28489 \
            13 & 1.27308 & 1.27884 \
            14 & 1.26787 & 1.27347 \
            15 & 1.26320 & 1.26867 \
            16 & 1.25899 & 1.26433 \
            17 & 1.25516 & 1.26039 \
            18 & 1.25166 & 1.25678 \
            19 & 1.24844 & 1.25346 \
            20 & 1.24547 & 1.25039
            endarray
            right)$$



            For $k=1000$, this would give as an estimate $1.12829$ for an exact value of $1.12955$.



            For infinitely large values of $k$, the asymptotics of the estimate would be
            $$x_est=1+frac6 (log (k)+gamma +1)6 log (k) (log (k)+2 gamma +1)+pi ^2+6 gamma
            (1+gamma )+6$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 10 at 8:04

























            answered Aug 8 at 7:16









            Claude Leibovici

            112k1155127




            112k1155127











            • Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:10











            • @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:18










            • Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:20











            • @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:22
















            • Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:10











            • @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:18










            • Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
              – TheSimpliFire
              Aug 8 at 8:20











            • @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 8 at 8:22















            Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Aug 8 at 8:10





            Interesting! What does that notation $psi^(0)(k)$ mean by the way?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Aug 8 at 8:10













            @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 8 at 8:18




            @TheSimpliFire. This is "just" the digamma function.
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 8 at 8:18












            Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
            – TheSimpliFire
            Aug 8 at 8:20





            Ah, I can see the resemblance of $psi$ to $-f$ now: here and here
            – TheSimpliFire
            Aug 8 at 8:20













            @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 8 at 8:22




            @TheSimpliFire. We use to write $psi^(n)(k)$ for the polygamma function and, in usual notations,$psi^(0)(k)=psi(k)$
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 8 at 8:22












             

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