Do even degree polynomials have even degree factors (no conjugates)?

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An even degree polynomial is a polynomial which has terms of only even degree, for example $3x^6 + x^4 + 2x^2 + 5$.



Let $p$ and $q$ be two non-zero polynomials such that both don't have a term with the same degree (for example, $p = x^3 + x + 1$, $q = x^4 + 3x^2 + 5$ is not allowed since both have a term of degree 0). A conjugate factor pair is a pair of form $p + q$ and $p - q$.



Assume all factorisation is over integers.



Now suppose there is a even polynomial which doesn't have a conjugate factor pair in it's list of factors. Will all factors be even degree polynomials too?




I really have no idea how to even approach this problem. Only thing I tried was taking examples. But I wasn't successful in finding a counter example.



My inspiration behind asking this was that, if you remove the conjugate pair restriction, there there are examples like $(x-1)(x+1) = x^2 - 1$ or $(x^2 + 1 + x)(x^2 + 1 - x) = x^4 + x^2 + 1$.







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  • Every polynomial $P$ with $P(0)=0$ has the conjugate factor pair $P+0$ and $P-0$, so such a polynomial must have nonzero constant term.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 12:57











  • Thanks. I'll edit that in.
    – Confuse
    Aug 25 at 13:01










  • It also depends a bit on your convention for $deg0$; some consider $deg0=0$ but often $deg0=-infty$ is more practical. In this case my previous comment does not hold, and in stead every polynomial has a conjugate factor pair, making the question void.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 13:15















up vote
8
down vote

favorite












An even degree polynomial is a polynomial which has terms of only even degree, for example $3x^6 + x^4 + 2x^2 + 5$.



Let $p$ and $q$ be two non-zero polynomials such that both don't have a term with the same degree (for example, $p = x^3 + x + 1$, $q = x^4 + 3x^2 + 5$ is not allowed since both have a term of degree 0). A conjugate factor pair is a pair of form $p + q$ and $p - q$.



Assume all factorisation is over integers.



Now suppose there is a even polynomial which doesn't have a conjugate factor pair in it's list of factors. Will all factors be even degree polynomials too?




I really have no idea how to even approach this problem. Only thing I tried was taking examples. But I wasn't successful in finding a counter example.



My inspiration behind asking this was that, if you remove the conjugate pair restriction, there there are examples like $(x-1)(x+1) = x^2 - 1$ or $(x^2 + 1 + x)(x^2 + 1 - x) = x^4 + x^2 + 1$.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Every polynomial $P$ with $P(0)=0$ has the conjugate factor pair $P+0$ and $P-0$, so such a polynomial must have nonzero constant term.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 12:57











  • Thanks. I'll edit that in.
    – Confuse
    Aug 25 at 13:01










  • It also depends a bit on your convention for $deg0$; some consider $deg0=0$ but often $deg0=-infty$ is more practical. In this case my previous comment does not hold, and in stead every polynomial has a conjugate factor pair, making the question void.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 13:15













up vote
8
down vote

favorite









up vote
8
down vote

favorite











An even degree polynomial is a polynomial which has terms of only even degree, for example $3x^6 + x^4 + 2x^2 + 5$.



Let $p$ and $q$ be two non-zero polynomials such that both don't have a term with the same degree (for example, $p = x^3 + x + 1$, $q = x^4 + 3x^2 + 5$ is not allowed since both have a term of degree 0). A conjugate factor pair is a pair of form $p + q$ and $p - q$.



Assume all factorisation is over integers.



Now suppose there is a even polynomial which doesn't have a conjugate factor pair in it's list of factors. Will all factors be even degree polynomials too?




I really have no idea how to even approach this problem. Only thing I tried was taking examples. But I wasn't successful in finding a counter example.



My inspiration behind asking this was that, if you remove the conjugate pair restriction, there there are examples like $(x-1)(x+1) = x^2 - 1$ or $(x^2 + 1 + x)(x^2 + 1 - x) = x^4 + x^2 + 1$.







share|cite|improve this question














An even degree polynomial is a polynomial which has terms of only even degree, for example $3x^6 + x^4 + 2x^2 + 5$.



Let $p$ and $q$ be two non-zero polynomials such that both don't have a term with the same degree (for example, $p = x^3 + x + 1$, $q = x^4 + 3x^2 + 5$ is not allowed since both have a term of degree 0). A conjugate factor pair is a pair of form $p + q$ and $p - q$.



Assume all factorisation is over integers.



Now suppose there is a even polynomial which doesn't have a conjugate factor pair in it's list of factors. Will all factors be even degree polynomials too?




I really have no idea how to even approach this problem. Only thing I tried was taking examples. But I wasn't successful in finding a counter example.



My inspiration behind asking this was that, if you remove the conjugate pair restriction, there there are examples like $(x-1)(x+1) = x^2 - 1$ or $(x^2 + 1 + x)(x^2 + 1 - x) = x^4 + x^2 + 1$.









share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 25 at 13:05

























asked Aug 25 at 11:40









Confuse

507513




507513











  • Every polynomial $P$ with $P(0)=0$ has the conjugate factor pair $P+0$ and $P-0$, so such a polynomial must have nonzero constant term.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 12:57











  • Thanks. I'll edit that in.
    – Confuse
    Aug 25 at 13:01










  • It also depends a bit on your convention for $deg0$; some consider $deg0=0$ but often $deg0=-infty$ is more practical. In this case my previous comment does not hold, and in stead every polynomial has a conjugate factor pair, making the question void.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 13:15

















  • Every polynomial $P$ with $P(0)=0$ has the conjugate factor pair $P+0$ and $P-0$, so such a polynomial must have nonzero constant term.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 12:57











  • Thanks. I'll edit that in.
    – Confuse
    Aug 25 at 13:01










  • It also depends a bit on your convention for $deg0$; some consider $deg0=0$ but often $deg0=-infty$ is more practical. In this case my previous comment does not hold, and in stead every polynomial has a conjugate factor pair, making the question void.
    – Servaes
    Aug 25 at 13:15
















Every polynomial $P$ with $P(0)=0$ has the conjugate factor pair $P+0$ and $P-0$, so such a polynomial must have nonzero constant term.
– Servaes
Aug 25 at 12:57





Every polynomial $P$ with $P(0)=0$ has the conjugate factor pair $P+0$ and $P-0$, so such a polynomial must have nonzero constant term.
– Servaes
Aug 25 at 12:57













Thanks. I'll edit that in.
– Confuse
Aug 25 at 13:01




Thanks. I'll edit that in.
– Confuse
Aug 25 at 13:01












It also depends a bit on your convention for $deg0$; some consider $deg0=0$ but often $deg0=-infty$ is more practical. In this case my previous comment does not hold, and in stead every polynomial has a conjugate factor pair, making the question void.
– Servaes
Aug 25 at 13:15





It also depends a bit on your convention for $deg0$; some consider $deg0=0$ but often $deg0=-infty$ is more practical. In this case my previous comment does not hold, and in stead every polynomial has a conjugate factor pair, making the question void.
– Servaes
Aug 25 at 13:15











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
8
down vote



accepted










Let $R:=BbbZ[X^2]subsetBbbZ[X]$ be the subring of 'even degree' polynomials. Let $Pin R$ factor in $BbbZ[X]$ as
$$P=prod_i=1^nQ_i,$$
where the $Q_i$ are irreducible. Because $Pin R$ we have $P(X)=P(-X)$ and so
$$prod_i=1^nQ_i(-X)=P(-X)=P(X)=prod_i=1^nQ_i(X),$$
so by unique factorization, for each $i$ there exists some $j$ such that $Q_i(-X)=Q_j(X)$. In particular the coefficients of $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are congruent mod $2$, and so for the polynomials
$$F:=fracQ_i+Q_j2qquadtext and qquad G:=fracQ_i-Q_j2,$$
we have $F,GinBbbZ[X]$ and $Q_i=F+G$ and $Q_j=F-G$. So $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are a conjugate pair, unless $G=0$ which is the case if and only if $Q_i=Q_j$.



So if $P$ does not have any conjugate pairs we must have $Q_i(X)=Q_i(-X)$ for all $i$, meaning that $Q_iin R$ for all $i$, so indeed all factors of $P$ are 'even degree' as well.






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    up vote
    3
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    Suppose $f(x)$ has even degree and let $f(x)=p(x)q(x)$ where $p(x)$ is an irreducible factor of $f(x)$. Then $f(-x)=p(-x)q(-x)$ and so $p(-x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$ as well. If $p(-x) neq p(x)$, then $p(-x)$ divides $q(x)$ and so $f(x)=p(x)p(-x)g(x)$. Clearly $p(x)$ and $p(-x)$ are conjugate pairs.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
      – Confuse
      Aug 25 at 13:20










    • I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
      – Marco
      Aug 25 at 13:20










    • Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
      – Confuse
      Aug 25 at 13:21

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    $$ x ^ 2 = x cdot x $$



    It does not look like $x$ and $x$ is a "conjugate pair" according to your definition, because it explicitly demands that $q$ be nonzero.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      8
      down vote



      accepted










      Let $R:=BbbZ[X^2]subsetBbbZ[X]$ be the subring of 'even degree' polynomials. Let $Pin R$ factor in $BbbZ[X]$ as
      $$P=prod_i=1^nQ_i,$$
      where the $Q_i$ are irreducible. Because $Pin R$ we have $P(X)=P(-X)$ and so
      $$prod_i=1^nQ_i(-X)=P(-X)=P(X)=prod_i=1^nQ_i(X),$$
      so by unique factorization, for each $i$ there exists some $j$ such that $Q_i(-X)=Q_j(X)$. In particular the coefficients of $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are congruent mod $2$, and so for the polynomials
      $$F:=fracQ_i+Q_j2qquadtext and qquad G:=fracQ_i-Q_j2,$$
      we have $F,GinBbbZ[X]$ and $Q_i=F+G$ and $Q_j=F-G$. So $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are a conjugate pair, unless $G=0$ which is the case if and only if $Q_i=Q_j$.



      So if $P$ does not have any conjugate pairs we must have $Q_i(X)=Q_i(-X)$ for all $i$, meaning that $Q_iin R$ for all $i$, so indeed all factors of $P$ are 'even degree' as well.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        8
        down vote



        accepted










        Let $R:=BbbZ[X^2]subsetBbbZ[X]$ be the subring of 'even degree' polynomials. Let $Pin R$ factor in $BbbZ[X]$ as
        $$P=prod_i=1^nQ_i,$$
        where the $Q_i$ are irreducible. Because $Pin R$ we have $P(X)=P(-X)$ and so
        $$prod_i=1^nQ_i(-X)=P(-X)=P(X)=prod_i=1^nQ_i(X),$$
        so by unique factorization, for each $i$ there exists some $j$ such that $Q_i(-X)=Q_j(X)$. In particular the coefficients of $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are congruent mod $2$, and so for the polynomials
        $$F:=fracQ_i+Q_j2qquadtext and qquad G:=fracQ_i-Q_j2,$$
        we have $F,GinBbbZ[X]$ and $Q_i=F+G$ and $Q_j=F-G$. So $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are a conjugate pair, unless $G=0$ which is the case if and only if $Q_i=Q_j$.



        So if $P$ does not have any conjugate pairs we must have $Q_i(X)=Q_i(-X)$ for all $i$, meaning that $Q_iin R$ for all $i$, so indeed all factors of $P$ are 'even degree' as well.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          8
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          8
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $R:=BbbZ[X^2]subsetBbbZ[X]$ be the subring of 'even degree' polynomials. Let $Pin R$ factor in $BbbZ[X]$ as
          $$P=prod_i=1^nQ_i,$$
          where the $Q_i$ are irreducible. Because $Pin R$ we have $P(X)=P(-X)$ and so
          $$prod_i=1^nQ_i(-X)=P(-X)=P(X)=prod_i=1^nQ_i(X),$$
          so by unique factorization, for each $i$ there exists some $j$ such that $Q_i(-X)=Q_j(X)$. In particular the coefficients of $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are congruent mod $2$, and so for the polynomials
          $$F:=fracQ_i+Q_j2qquadtext and qquad G:=fracQ_i-Q_j2,$$
          we have $F,GinBbbZ[X]$ and $Q_i=F+G$ and $Q_j=F-G$. So $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are a conjugate pair, unless $G=0$ which is the case if and only if $Q_i=Q_j$.



          So if $P$ does not have any conjugate pairs we must have $Q_i(X)=Q_i(-X)$ for all $i$, meaning that $Q_iin R$ for all $i$, so indeed all factors of $P$ are 'even degree' as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Let $R:=BbbZ[X^2]subsetBbbZ[X]$ be the subring of 'even degree' polynomials. Let $Pin R$ factor in $BbbZ[X]$ as
          $$P=prod_i=1^nQ_i,$$
          where the $Q_i$ are irreducible. Because $Pin R$ we have $P(X)=P(-X)$ and so
          $$prod_i=1^nQ_i(-X)=P(-X)=P(X)=prod_i=1^nQ_i(X),$$
          so by unique factorization, for each $i$ there exists some $j$ such that $Q_i(-X)=Q_j(X)$. In particular the coefficients of $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are congruent mod $2$, and so for the polynomials
          $$F:=fracQ_i+Q_j2qquadtext and qquad G:=fracQ_i-Q_j2,$$
          we have $F,GinBbbZ[X]$ and $Q_i=F+G$ and $Q_j=F-G$. So $Q_i$ and $Q_j$ are a conjugate pair, unless $G=0$ which is the case if and only if $Q_i=Q_j$.



          So if $P$ does not have any conjugate pairs we must have $Q_i(X)=Q_i(-X)$ for all $i$, meaning that $Q_iin R$ for all $i$, so indeed all factors of $P$ are 'even degree' as well.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 25 at 13:09









          Servaes

          1




          1




















              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Suppose $f(x)$ has even degree and let $f(x)=p(x)q(x)$ where $p(x)$ is an irreducible factor of $f(x)$. Then $f(-x)=p(-x)q(-x)$ and so $p(-x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$ as well. If $p(-x) neq p(x)$, then $p(-x)$ divides $q(x)$ and so $f(x)=p(x)p(-x)g(x)$. Clearly $p(x)$ and $p(-x)$ are conjugate pairs.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
                – Marco
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:21














              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Suppose $f(x)$ has even degree and let $f(x)=p(x)q(x)$ where $p(x)$ is an irreducible factor of $f(x)$. Then $f(-x)=p(-x)q(-x)$ and so $p(-x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$ as well. If $p(-x) neq p(x)$, then $p(-x)$ divides $q(x)$ and so $f(x)=p(x)p(-x)g(x)$. Clearly $p(x)$ and $p(-x)$ are conjugate pairs.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
                – Marco
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:21












              up vote
              3
              down vote










              up vote
              3
              down vote









              Suppose $f(x)$ has even degree and let $f(x)=p(x)q(x)$ where $p(x)$ is an irreducible factor of $f(x)$. Then $f(-x)=p(-x)q(-x)$ and so $p(-x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$ as well. If $p(-x) neq p(x)$, then $p(-x)$ divides $q(x)$ and so $f(x)=p(x)p(-x)g(x)$. Clearly $p(x)$ and $p(-x)$ are conjugate pairs.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Suppose $f(x)$ has even degree and let $f(x)=p(x)q(x)$ where $p(x)$ is an irreducible factor of $f(x)$. Then $f(-x)=p(-x)q(-x)$ and so $p(-x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$ as well. If $p(-x) neq p(x)$, then $p(-x)$ divides $q(x)$ and so $f(x)=p(x)p(-x)g(x)$. Clearly $p(x)$ and $p(-x)$ are conjugate pairs.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Aug 25 at 13:16









              Marco

              1,55917




              1,55917











              • But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
                – Marco
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:21
















              • But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
                – Marco
                Aug 25 at 13:20










              • Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
                – Confuse
                Aug 25 at 13:21















              But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
              – Confuse
              Aug 25 at 13:20




              But what if $p(-x)$ and $p(x)$ have some common factors?
              – Confuse
              Aug 25 at 13:20












              I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
              – Marco
              Aug 25 at 13:20




              I take $p(x)$ to be irreducible.
              – Marco
              Aug 25 at 13:20












              Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
              – Confuse
              Aug 25 at 13:21




              Oh right. I missed that. Thank you.
              – Confuse
              Aug 25 at 13:21










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              $$ x ^ 2 = x cdot x $$



              It does not look like $x$ and $x$ is a "conjugate pair" according to your definition, because it explicitly demands that $q$ be nonzero.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                $$ x ^ 2 = x cdot x $$



                It does not look like $x$ and $x$ is a "conjugate pair" according to your definition, because it explicitly demands that $q$ be nonzero.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  $$ x ^ 2 = x cdot x $$



                  It does not look like $x$ and $x$ is a "conjugate pair" according to your definition, because it explicitly demands that $q$ be nonzero.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  $$ x ^ 2 = x cdot x $$



                  It does not look like $x$ and $x$ is a "conjugate pair" according to your definition, because it explicitly demands that $q$ be nonzero.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 25 at 20:36









                  Henning Makholm

                  230k16296527




                  230k16296527



























                       

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