Multiple answers in evaluation of a definite integral.

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Consider this definite integral
$$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx$$



Method 1



$$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



$$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



Adding (1) and (2)



$$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



$$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



$$I=2pi int_0^pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx.....(P1)$$



$$I=2piint_0^pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



$$I=2pi int_0^pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



$$I=2pi int_0^pi1dx-2pi int_0^pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



$$I=2pi[x]_0^pi -2pi int_0^pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



$$I=2pi ² - pi int_0^pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



$$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^pi $$



$$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ infty - 0 right] $$



$$I=-infty$$



Method 2



$$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



$$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



Adding (1) and (2)



$$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



$$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



$$I=piint_0^2pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



$$I=pi int_0^2pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



$$I=pi int_0^2pi1dx-pi int_0^2pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



$$I=pi[x]_0^2pi -pi int_0^2pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



$$I=2pi ² - dfracpi2 int_0^2pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



$$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^2pi $$



$$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ 0-0right] $$



$$I=2pi ²$$




$$(P1)--> int_0^2a f(x)dx=2int_0^af(x)dx$$if $f(2a-x)=f(x)$



I have checked these methods several times, but can't find any mistake. Method 1 seems to be wrong as the given answer was $2pi ²$. What could be the mistake?










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    Consider this definite integral
    $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx$$



    Method 1



    $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



    $$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



    Adding (1) and (2)



    $$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=2pi int_0^pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx.....(P1)$$



    $$I=2piint_0^pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=2pi int_0^pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=2pi int_0^pi1dx-2pi int_0^pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=2pi[x]_0^pi -2pi int_0^pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



    $$I=2pi ² - pi int_0^pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



    $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^pi $$



    $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ infty - 0 right] $$



    $$I=-infty$$



    Method 2



    $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



    $$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



    Adding (1) and (2)



    $$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=piint_0^2pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=pi int_0^2pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=pi int_0^2pi1dx-pi int_0^2pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



    $$I=pi[x]_0^2pi -pi int_0^2pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



    $$I=2pi ² - dfracpi2 int_0^2pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



    $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^2pi $$



    $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ 0-0right] $$



    $$I=2pi ²$$




    $$(P1)--> int_0^2a f(x)dx=2int_0^af(x)dx$$if $f(2a-x)=f(x)$



    I have checked these methods several times, but can't find any mistake. Method 1 seems to be wrong as the given answer was $2pi ²$. What could be the mistake?










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Consider this definite integral
      $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx$$



      Method 1



      $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



      $$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



      Adding (1) and (2)



      $$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi int_0^pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx.....(P1)$$



      $$I=2piint_0^pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi int_0^pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi int_0^pi1dx-2pi int_0^pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi[x]_0^pi -2pi int_0^pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



      $$I=2pi ² - pi int_0^pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^pi $$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ infty - 0 right] $$



      $$I=-infty$$



      Method 2



      $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



      $$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



      Adding (1) and (2)



      $$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=piint_0^2pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pi1dx-pi int_0^2pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi[x]_0^2pi -pi int_0^2pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



      $$I=2pi ² - dfracpi2 int_0^2pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^2pi $$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ 0-0right] $$



      $$I=2pi ²$$




      $$(P1)--> int_0^2a f(x)dx=2int_0^af(x)dx$$if $f(2a-x)=f(x)$



      I have checked these methods several times, but can't find any mistake. Method 1 seems to be wrong as the given answer was $2pi ²$. What could be the mistake?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Consider this definite integral
      $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx$$



      Method 1



      $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



      $$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



      Adding (1) and (2)



      $$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi int_0^pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx.....(P1)$$



      $$I=2piint_0^pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi int_0^pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi int_0^pi1dx-2pi int_0^pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=2pi[x]_0^pi -2pi int_0^pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



      $$I=2pi ² - pi int_0^pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^pi $$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - 2pi left[ infty - 0 right] $$



      $$I=-infty$$



      Method 2



      $$I=int_0^2pidfracxcos x1 +cos xdx.....(1)$$



      $$I=int_0^2pidfrac(2pi-x)cos (2pi-x)1 +cos (2pi-x)dx.....(2)$$



      Adding (1) and (2)



      $$2I=int_0^2pidfrac2pi cos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pidfraccos x1 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=piint_0^2pidfrac1+cos x-11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pi1-dfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi int_0^2pi1dx-pi int_0^2pidfrac11 +cos xdx$$



      $$I=pi[x]_0^2pi -pi int_0^2pidfrac12cos ²dfracx2dx$$



      $$I=2pi ² - dfracpi2 int_0^2pi sec ²dfracx2 dx$$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ tan dfracx2right]_0^2pi $$



      $$displaystyle I=2pi ² - pi left[ 0-0right] $$



      $$I=2pi ²$$




      $$(P1)--> int_0^2a f(x)dx=2int_0^af(x)dx$$if $f(2a-x)=f(x)$



      I have checked these methods several times, but can't find any mistake. Method 1 seems to be wrong as the given answer was $2pi ²$. What could be the mistake?







      definite-integrals






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      asked 1 hour ago









      Loop Back

      2518




      2518




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          Actually, the first method is correct and the second method is wrong. To see what is happening here, notice that



          $$ lim_x to pi (x-pi)^2 fracx cos x1+cos x
          = -2pi, $$



          meaning that the integrand has pole of order $2$ at $pi$.



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of the integrand



          So the integral does not converge (not even in ordinary sense, but as in improper sense and as in Cauchy principal value sense).



          To see what is wrong in your second approach, notice that $u = tan(x/2)$ has pole at $pi$, hence cannot be used as a valid substitution over the interval $[0, 2pi]$. (Of course, it can be used as a substitution over the interval $[0,pi)$, which is why your first approach is valid.)



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of u=tan(x/2)






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
            – Loop Back
            40 mins ago










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          1 Answer
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          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          Actually, the first method is correct and the second method is wrong. To see what is happening here, notice that



          $$ lim_x to pi (x-pi)^2 fracx cos x1+cos x
          = -2pi, $$



          meaning that the integrand has pole of order $2$ at $pi$.



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of the integrand



          So the integral does not converge (not even in ordinary sense, but as in improper sense and as in Cauchy principal value sense).



          To see what is wrong in your second approach, notice that $u = tan(x/2)$ has pole at $pi$, hence cannot be used as a valid substitution over the interval $[0, 2pi]$. (Of course, it can be used as a substitution over the interval $[0,pi)$, which is why your first approach is valid.)



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of u=tan(x/2)






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
            – Loop Back
            40 mins ago














          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          Actually, the first method is correct and the second method is wrong. To see what is happening here, notice that



          $$ lim_x to pi (x-pi)^2 fracx cos x1+cos x
          = -2pi, $$



          meaning that the integrand has pole of order $2$ at $pi$.



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of the integrand



          So the integral does not converge (not even in ordinary sense, but as in improper sense and as in Cauchy principal value sense).



          To see what is wrong in your second approach, notice that $u = tan(x/2)$ has pole at $pi$, hence cannot be used as a valid substitution over the interval $[0, 2pi]$. (Of course, it can be used as a substitution over the interval $[0,pi)$, which is why your first approach is valid.)



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of u=tan(x/2)






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
            – Loop Back
            40 mins ago












          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted






          Actually, the first method is correct and the second method is wrong. To see what is happening here, notice that



          $$ lim_x to pi (x-pi)^2 fracx cos x1+cos x
          = -2pi, $$



          meaning that the integrand has pole of order $2$ at $pi$.



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of the integrand



          So the integral does not converge (not even in ordinary sense, but as in improper sense and as in Cauchy principal value sense).



          To see what is wrong in your second approach, notice that $u = tan(x/2)$ has pole at $pi$, hence cannot be used as a valid substitution over the interval $[0, 2pi]$. (Of course, it can be used as a substitution over the interval $[0,pi)$, which is why your first approach is valid.)



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of u=tan(x/2)






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Actually, the first method is correct and the second method is wrong. To see what is happening here, notice that



          $$ lim_x to pi (x-pi)^2 fracx cos x1+cos x
          = -2pi, $$



          meaning that the integrand has pole of order $2$ at $pi$.



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of the integrand



          So the integral does not converge (not even in ordinary sense, but as in improper sense and as in Cauchy principal value sense).



          To see what is wrong in your second approach, notice that $u = tan(x/2)$ has pole at $pi$, hence cannot be used as a valid substitution over the interval $[0, 2pi]$. (Of course, it can be used as a substitution over the interval $[0,pi)$, which is why your first approach is valid.)



          $hspace8.5em$Graph of u=tan(x/2)







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 54 mins ago









          Sangchul Lee

          86.7k12155255




          86.7k12155255











          • $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
            – Loop Back
            40 mins ago
















          • $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
            – Loop Back
            40 mins ago















          $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
          – Loop Back
          40 mins ago




          $SangchulLee thank you I didn't notice that substitution mistake, next time I'll remember it.
          – Loop Back
          40 mins ago

















           

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