Analogy between the fundamental theorems of arithmetic and algebra

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For the learned mathematician it may be obvious and not worth mentioning: that the fundamental theorems of arithmetic and algebra look very similar and have to do with each other, in abbreviated form:



$$ n = p_1cdot p_2 cdot dots cdot p_k$$



$$ P(z) = z_0cdot(z_1 -z)cdot (z_2 -z) cdot dots cdot (z_k -z)$$



which makes obvious that the irreducible polynoms of first degree play the same role in $mathbbC[X]$ as do the prime numbers in $mathbbZ$ (which both are unitary rings). It also gives the wording "fundamental theorem" a specific meaning: It is stated that and how some irreducible elements build the fundaments of a structure.



What I wonder is, why this analogy is not made more explicit and stressed, e.g. in introductory expositions as in Wikipedia (where the reader even is warned not to confuse the two theorems - not further mentioning the other by a single word). Might it be a superficial and maybe misleading analogy?










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    up vote
    6
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    For the learned mathematician it may be obvious and not worth mentioning: that the fundamental theorems of arithmetic and algebra look very similar and have to do with each other, in abbreviated form:



    $$ n = p_1cdot p_2 cdot dots cdot p_k$$



    $$ P(z) = z_0cdot(z_1 -z)cdot (z_2 -z) cdot dots cdot (z_k -z)$$



    which makes obvious that the irreducible polynoms of first degree play the same role in $mathbbC[X]$ as do the prime numbers in $mathbbZ$ (which both are unitary rings). It also gives the wording "fundamental theorem" a specific meaning: It is stated that and how some irreducible elements build the fundaments of a structure.



    What I wonder is, why this analogy is not made more explicit and stressed, e.g. in introductory expositions as in Wikipedia (where the reader even is warned not to confuse the two theorems - not further mentioning the other by a single word). Might it be a superficial and maybe misleading analogy?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite
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      up vote
      6
      down vote

      favorite
      1






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      For the learned mathematician it may be obvious and not worth mentioning: that the fundamental theorems of arithmetic and algebra look very similar and have to do with each other, in abbreviated form:



      $$ n = p_1cdot p_2 cdot dots cdot p_k$$



      $$ P(z) = z_0cdot(z_1 -z)cdot (z_2 -z) cdot dots cdot (z_k -z)$$



      which makes obvious that the irreducible polynoms of first degree play the same role in $mathbbC[X]$ as do the prime numbers in $mathbbZ$ (which both are unitary rings). It also gives the wording "fundamental theorem" a specific meaning: It is stated that and how some irreducible elements build the fundaments of a structure.



      What I wonder is, why this analogy is not made more explicit and stressed, e.g. in introductory expositions as in Wikipedia (where the reader even is warned not to confuse the two theorems - not further mentioning the other by a single word). Might it be a superficial and maybe misleading analogy?










      share|cite|improve this question















      For the learned mathematician it may be obvious and not worth mentioning: that the fundamental theorems of arithmetic and algebra look very similar and have to do with each other, in abbreviated form:



      $$ n = p_1cdot p_2 cdot dots cdot p_k$$



      $$ P(z) = z_0cdot(z_1 -z)cdot (z_2 -z) cdot dots cdot (z_k -z)$$



      which makes obvious that the irreducible polynoms of first degree play the same role in $mathbbC[X]$ as do the prime numbers in $mathbbZ$ (which both are unitary rings). It also gives the wording "fundamental theorem" a specific meaning: It is stated that and how some irreducible elements build the fundaments of a structure.



      What I wonder is, why this analogy is not made more explicit and stressed, e.g. in introductory expositions as in Wikipedia (where the reader even is warned not to confuse the two theorems - not further mentioning the other by a single word). Might it be a superficial and maybe misleading analogy?







      abstract-algebra arithmetic






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      edited 36 mins ago

























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      Hans Stricker

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          This analogy can be formalise in ring theory. The sets $mathbb C[X]$ and $mathbb Z$ are both rings, and more precisely, noetherian rings.



          In noetherian rings, you have a theorem that stated that every ideal can be decomposed as the intersection of finitely many primary ideals.



          Which is exactly the meaning of those two theorems.



          In general: if you like this kinds of analogies, study group theory, ring theory, and really any kind of algebraic structures.






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            It is a good analogy. It turns out the both $mathbb Z$ and $mathbbC[x]$ are unique factorization domains. In the case of $mathbbC[x]$, this fact, togther with the fundamental theorem of Algebra, means what you wrote: every $p(x)inmathbbC[x]$ can be written as the product of a non-zero complex number and first degree polynomials. The same thing applies to any algebraically closed field, such as the field of algebraic numbers.






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            • On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
              – red_trumpet
              13 mins ago










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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            up vote
            5
            down vote













            This analogy can be formalise in ring theory. The sets $mathbb C[X]$ and $mathbb Z$ are both rings, and more precisely, noetherian rings.



            In noetherian rings, you have a theorem that stated that every ideal can be decomposed as the intersection of finitely many primary ideals.



            Which is exactly the meaning of those two theorems.



            In general: if you like this kinds of analogies, study group theory, ring theory, and really any kind of algebraic structures.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              5
              down vote













              This analogy can be formalise in ring theory. The sets $mathbb C[X]$ and $mathbb Z$ are both rings, and more precisely, noetherian rings.



              In noetherian rings, you have a theorem that stated that every ideal can be decomposed as the intersection of finitely many primary ideals.



              Which is exactly the meaning of those two theorems.



              In general: if you like this kinds of analogies, study group theory, ring theory, and really any kind of algebraic structures.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                5
                down vote










                up vote
                5
                down vote









                This analogy can be formalise in ring theory. The sets $mathbb C[X]$ and $mathbb Z$ are both rings, and more precisely, noetherian rings.



                In noetherian rings, you have a theorem that stated that every ideal can be decomposed as the intersection of finitely many primary ideals.



                Which is exactly the meaning of those two theorems.



                In general: if you like this kinds of analogies, study group theory, ring theory, and really any kind of algebraic structures.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                This analogy can be formalise in ring theory. The sets $mathbb C[X]$ and $mathbb Z$ are both rings, and more precisely, noetherian rings.



                In noetherian rings, you have a theorem that stated that every ideal can be decomposed as the intersection of finitely many primary ideals.



                Which is exactly the meaning of those two theorems.



                In general: if you like this kinds of analogies, study group theory, ring theory, and really any kind of algebraic structures.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 35 mins ago









                E. Joseph

                11.4k82755




                11.4k82755




















                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote













                    It is a good analogy. It turns out the both $mathbb Z$ and $mathbbC[x]$ are unique factorization domains. In the case of $mathbbC[x]$, this fact, togther with the fundamental theorem of Algebra, means what you wrote: every $p(x)inmathbbC[x]$ can be written as the product of a non-zero complex number and first degree polynomials. The same thing applies to any algebraically closed field, such as the field of algebraic numbers.






                    share|cite|improve this answer




















                    • On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
                      – red_trumpet
                      13 mins ago














                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote













                    It is a good analogy. It turns out the both $mathbb Z$ and $mathbbC[x]$ are unique factorization domains. In the case of $mathbbC[x]$, this fact, togther with the fundamental theorem of Algebra, means what you wrote: every $p(x)inmathbbC[x]$ can be written as the product of a non-zero complex number and first degree polynomials. The same thing applies to any algebraically closed field, such as the field of algebraic numbers.






                    share|cite|improve this answer




















                    • On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
                      – red_trumpet
                      13 mins ago












                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote









                    It is a good analogy. It turns out the both $mathbb Z$ and $mathbbC[x]$ are unique factorization domains. In the case of $mathbbC[x]$, this fact, togther with the fundamental theorem of Algebra, means what you wrote: every $p(x)inmathbbC[x]$ can be written as the product of a non-zero complex number and first degree polynomials. The same thing applies to any algebraically closed field, such as the field of algebraic numbers.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    It is a good analogy. It turns out the both $mathbb Z$ and $mathbbC[x]$ are unique factorization domains. In the case of $mathbbC[x]$, this fact, togther with the fundamental theorem of Algebra, means what you wrote: every $p(x)inmathbbC[x]$ can be written as the product of a non-zero complex number and first degree polynomials. The same thing applies to any algebraically closed field, such as the field of algebraic numbers.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 21 mins ago









                    José Carlos Santos

                    125k17101187




                    125k17101187











                    • On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
                      – red_trumpet
                      13 mins ago
















                    • On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
                      – red_trumpet
                      13 mins ago















                    On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
                    – red_trumpet
                    13 mins ago




                    On the other hand, every polynomial ring over a field is a UFD, so the fundamental theorem of algebra appears to be a bit more specific.
                    – red_trumpet
                    13 mins ago

















                     

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