Understanding Conditional Probability (Math is Fun)
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I have trouble understanding a simple concept from Math is Fun.
STATEMENT: 70% of your friends like Chocolate, and 35% like Chocolate AND like Strawberry. What percent of those who like Chocolate also like Strawberry?
SOLUTION: P(Strawberry|Chocolate) = P(Chocolate and Strawberry) / P(Chocolate)
0.35 / 0.7 = 50% . Hence 50% of your friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry
WHAT I CAN'T UNDERSTAND: What is the difference between the statements that "35% of friends like both Chocolate and Strawberry" and "friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry". Just a play of words, practically they seem exact same to me. Am I missing something ?
probability
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up vote
5
down vote
favorite
I have trouble understanding a simple concept from Math is Fun.
STATEMENT: 70% of your friends like Chocolate, and 35% like Chocolate AND like Strawberry. What percent of those who like Chocolate also like Strawberry?
SOLUTION: P(Strawberry|Chocolate) = P(Chocolate and Strawberry) / P(Chocolate)
0.35 / 0.7 = 50% . Hence 50% of your friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry
WHAT I CAN'T UNDERSTAND: What is the difference between the statements that "35% of friends like both Chocolate and Strawberry" and "friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry". Just a play of words, practically they seem exact same to me. Am I missing something ?
probability
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
I have trouble understanding a simple concept from Math is Fun.
STATEMENT: 70% of your friends like Chocolate, and 35% like Chocolate AND like Strawberry. What percent of those who like Chocolate also like Strawberry?
SOLUTION: P(Strawberry|Chocolate) = P(Chocolate and Strawberry) / P(Chocolate)
0.35 / 0.7 = 50% . Hence 50% of your friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry
WHAT I CAN'T UNDERSTAND: What is the difference between the statements that "35% of friends like both Chocolate and Strawberry" and "friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry". Just a play of words, practically they seem exact same to me. Am I missing something ?
probability
I have trouble understanding a simple concept from Math is Fun.
STATEMENT: 70% of your friends like Chocolate, and 35% like Chocolate AND like Strawberry. What percent of those who like Chocolate also like Strawberry?
SOLUTION: P(Strawberry|Chocolate) = P(Chocolate and Strawberry) / P(Chocolate)
0.35 / 0.7 = 50% . Hence 50% of your friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry
WHAT I CAN'T UNDERSTAND: What is the difference between the statements that "35% of friends like both Chocolate and Strawberry" and "friends who like Chocolate also like Strawberry". Just a play of words, practically they seem exact same to me. Am I missing something ?
probability
probability
asked 3 hours ago
Arnuld
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3 Answers
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The small difference in the words implies a difference in the denominator in the calculation, while the numerator stays the same.
Suppose you in fact have $20$ friends of whom $14$ like Chocolate, and of these $7$ like Chocolate and Strawberry.
- The proportion of all your friends who like both is $dfrac720=35%$
- The proportion of your Chocolate-liking friends who also like Strawberry is $dfrac714=50%$
This second calculation is equivalent to $frac7/2014/20 = frac35%70%$, and you would get the same percentage result if you in fact have $100$ or $2000$ friends
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The difference is in what comes before.
For chocolate and strawberry the question is explicitly looking at everyone, and then within them, who likes both.
The second bit; those who like chocolate also like strawberry, means that you are looking at a smaller group to begin with. You look at those who like chocolate, and within that smaller group find those who like both.
Obviously those who like chocolate who also like strawberry are in the group of those who like chocolate and strawberry. So you're right in saying that they mean the same thing - to an extent. It just changes how you view the "population".
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
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0
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I think there is a confusion about $measures$:
we do not discuss the $share$ or number of people in the population, we discuss another measure, called $probability$, which sometimes can be viewed as a share or proportion, but not necessarily. In your case $70 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate' and $50 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate'.
$35 %$ means 'pick a person from the group of people that like chocolate (subset of the population), what's the chance he likes the strawberry'. So you restrict the $selection$ to a subset of the population. Therefore it is not an absolute number that matters, but a 'chance to observe an effect', not by examining the whole population, but a subset thereof.
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
The small difference in the words implies a difference in the denominator in the calculation, while the numerator stays the same.
Suppose you in fact have $20$ friends of whom $14$ like Chocolate, and of these $7$ like Chocolate and Strawberry.
- The proportion of all your friends who like both is $dfrac720=35%$
- The proportion of your Chocolate-liking friends who also like Strawberry is $dfrac714=50%$
This second calculation is equivalent to $frac7/2014/20 = frac35%70%$, and you would get the same percentage result if you in fact have $100$ or $2000$ friends
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
The small difference in the words implies a difference in the denominator in the calculation, while the numerator stays the same.
Suppose you in fact have $20$ friends of whom $14$ like Chocolate, and of these $7$ like Chocolate and Strawberry.
- The proportion of all your friends who like both is $dfrac720=35%$
- The proportion of your Chocolate-liking friends who also like Strawberry is $dfrac714=50%$
This second calculation is equivalent to $frac7/2014/20 = frac35%70%$, and you would get the same percentage result if you in fact have $100$ or $2000$ friends
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
The small difference in the words implies a difference in the denominator in the calculation, while the numerator stays the same.
Suppose you in fact have $20$ friends of whom $14$ like Chocolate, and of these $7$ like Chocolate and Strawberry.
- The proportion of all your friends who like both is $dfrac720=35%$
- The proportion of your Chocolate-liking friends who also like Strawberry is $dfrac714=50%$
This second calculation is equivalent to $frac7/2014/20 = frac35%70%$, and you would get the same percentage result if you in fact have $100$ or $2000$ friends
The small difference in the words implies a difference in the denominator in the calculation, while the numerator stays the same.
Suppose you in fact have $20$ friends of whom $14$ like Chocolate, and of these $7$ like Chocolate and Strawberry.
- The proportion of all your friends who like both is $dfrac720=35%$
- The proportion of your Chocolate-liking friends who also like Strawberry is $dfrac714=50%$
This second calculation is equivalent to $frac7/2014/20 = frac35%70%$, and you would get the same percentage result if you in fact have $100$ or $2000$ friends
answered 2 hours ago
Henry
94.6k473151
94.6k473151
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up vote
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The difference is in what comes before.
For chocolate and strawberry the question is explicitly looking at everyone, and then within them, who likes both.
The second bit; those who like chocolate also like strawberry, means that you are looking at a smaller group to begin with. You look at those who like chocolate, and within that smaller group find those who like both.
Obviously those who like chocolate who also like strawberry are in the group of those who like chocolate and strawberry. So you're right in saying that they mean the same thing - to an extent. It just changes how you view the "population".
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
The difference is in what comes before.
For chocolate and strawberry the question is explicitly looking at everyone, and then within them, who likes both.
The second bit; those who like chocolate also like strawberry, means that you are looking at a smaller group to begin with. You look at those who like chocolate, and within that smaller group find those who like both.
Obviously those who like chocolate who also like strawberry are in the group of those who like chocolate and strawberry. So you're right in saying that they mean the same thing - to an extent. It just changes how you view the "population".
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
The difference is in what comes before.
For chocolate and strawberry the question is explicitly looking at everyone, and then within them, who likes both.
The second bit; those who like chocolate also like strawberry, means that you are looking at a smaller group to begin with. You look at those who like chocolate, and within that smaller group find those who like both.
Obviously those who like chocolate who also like strawberry are in the group of those who like chocolate and strawberry. So you're right in saying that they mean the same thing - to an extent. It just changes how you view the "population".
The difference is in what comes before.
For chocolate and strawberry the question is explicitly looking at everyone, and then within them, who likes both.
The second bit; those who like chocolate also like strawberry, means that you are looking at a smaller group to begin with. You look at those who like chocolate, and within that smaller group find those who like both.
Obviously those who like chocolate who also like strawberry are in the group of those who like chocolate and strawberry. So you're right in saying that they mean the same thing - to an extent. It just changes how you view the "population".
answered 2 hours ago
MRobinson
1,04518
1,04518
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
Let me know if that doesn't make any sense and I'll try and reword
– MRobinson
2 hours ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
I think there is a confusion about $measures$:
we do not discuss the $share$ or number of people in the population, we discuss another measure, called $probability$, which sometimes can be viewed as a share or proportion, but not necessarily. In your case $70 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate' and $50 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate'.
$35 %$ means 'pick a person from the group of people that like chocolate (subset of the population), what's the chance he likes the strawberry'. So you restrict the $selection$ to a subset of the population. Therefore it is not an absolute number that matters, but a 'chance to observe an effect', not by examining the whole population, but a subset thereof.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
I think there is a confusion about $measures$:
we do not discuss the $share$ or number of people in the population, we discuss another measure, called $probability$, which sometimes can be viewed as a share or proportion, but not necessarily. In your case $70 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate' and $50 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate'.
$35 %$ means 'pick a person from the group of people that like chocolate (subset of the population), what's the chance he likes the strawberry'. So you restrict the $selection$ to a subset of the population. Therefore it is not an absolute number that matters, but a 'chance to observe an effect', not by examining the whole population, but a subset thereof.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
I think there is a confusion about $measures$:
we do not discuss the $share$ or number of people in the population, we discuss another measure, called $probability$, which sometimes can be viewed as a share or proportion, but not necessarily. In your case $70 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate' and $50 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate'.
$35 %$ means 'pick a person from the group of people that like chocolate (subset of the population), what's the chance he likes the strawberry'. So you restrict the $selection$ to a subset of the population. Therefore it is not an absolute number that matters, but a 'chance to observe an effect', not by examining the whole population, but a subset thereof.
I think there is a confusion about $measures$:
we do not discuss the $share$ or number of people in the population, we discuss another measure, called $probability$, which sometimes can be viewed as a share or proportion, but not necessarily. In your case $70 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate' and $50 %$ means 'pick a person from the population, what's the chance he likes chocolate'.
$35 %$ means 'pick a person from the group of people that like chocolate (subset of the population), what's the chance he likes the strawberry'. So you restrict the $selection$ to a subset of the population. Therefore it is not an absolute number that matters, but a 'chance to observe an effect', not by examining the whole population, but a subset thereof.
answered 22 mins ago


Alex
14k42032
14k42032
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