Do we need 'such that' after qualifiers?

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Alright this is driving me crazy. I'm trying to figure out when we actually need to use 'such that' in math/logical expressions. There seems to be quite a bit of inconsistency but I wanted to check to be sure.



I've seen 3 ways of doing it...



  • My discrete mathematics professor IIRC always used a 'such that' after an existential qualifier but not after a universal qualifier... so he'd use ∃x ∈ N: x > 1, but then also ∀x ∈ N, x > 0 (I think he'd use a comma here)

  • These guys and a couple others I've seen online use no punctuation unless indicating parentheses: What does a period in between quantifiers mean?

  • But others still use 'such that' (:) before all qualifiers: Does order of qualifiers matter in FOL formula?

I believe my math professor did what he did because it translated cleanly to English. Since you'd say "There exists an x such that x > 3" but you could also say "For all x, x=x". But I'm trying to figure out what the 'such that' symbol actually means in math, because I don't think the way it works in English necessarily makes sense. Wolfram Alpha defines the 'such that' symbol as 'indicating a condition in the definition of a mathematical object', and this make sense but they introduce yet another convention of qualifiers after a such that since q∈Z ≡ ∀q∈Z. And of course this convention makes no sense when translated to English in the case when for example when we'd say "x > 3: ∃x ∈ N" which translates to "x is greater than three such that there exists an x in naturals".



So anyways my question is what are you actually supposed to do? It looks like there are multiple conventions so which is best and most commonly used?










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  • 1




    It's similar to asking what "like" means in casual conversation. It's, like, simply a placeholder. It's, like, a verbal tic in the expression of an existential statement. I do it, many mathematicians do it.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Math isn't casual conversation though...
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Math between human beings, whether spoken or written, is carried out in human language, though. The point is: clarity and communication. Placeholders can help (and they can, like, hinder).
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Ok sure, so that would be "informal speach" which in English speaking cultures and many other cultures is grammatically incorrect. So why question is what is grammatically correct?
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago










  • To answer your grammar question, putting the words "such that" in the correct position of an existentially quantified statement is correct mathematical grammar.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Alright this is driving me crazy. I'm trying to figure out when we actually need to use 'such that' in math/logical expressions. There seems to be quite a bit of inconsistency but I wanted to check to be sure.



I've seen 3 ways of doing it...



  • My discrete mathematics professor IIRC always used a 'such that' after an existential qualifier but not after a universal qualifier... so he'd use ∃x ∈ N: x > 1, but then also ∀x ∈ N, x > 0 (I think he'd use a comma here)

  • These guys and a couple others I've seen online use no punctuation unless indicating parentheses: What does a period in between quantifiers mean?

  • But others still use 'such that' (:) before all qualifiers: Does order of qualifiers matter in FOL formula?

I believe my math professor did what he did because it translated cleanly to English. Since you'd say "There exists an x such that x > 3" but you could also say "For all x, x=x". But I'm trying to figure out what the 'such that' symbol actually means in math, because I don't think the way it works in English necessarily makes sense. Wolfram Alpha defines the 'such that' symbol as 'indicating a condition in the definition of a mathematical object', and this make sense but they introduce yet another convention of qualifiers after a such that since q∈Z ≡ ∀q∈Z. And of course this convention makes no sense when translated to English in the case when for example when we'd say "x > 3: ∃x ∈ N" which translates to "x is greater than three such that there exists an x in naturals".



So anyways my question is what are you actually supposed to do? It looks like there are multiple conventions so which is best and most commonly used?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




profPlum is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.















  • 1




    It's similar to asking what "like" means in casual conversation. It's, like, simply a placeholder. It's, like, a verbal tic in the expression of an existential statement. I do it, many mathematicians do it.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Math isn't casual conversation though...
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Math between human beings, whether spoken or written, is carried out in human language, though. The point is: clarity and communication. Placeholders can help (and they can, like, hinder).
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Ok sure, so that would be "informal speach" which in English speaking cultures and many other cultures is grammatically incorrect. So why question is what is grammatically correct?
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago










  • To answer your grammar question, putting the words "such that" in the correct position of an existentially quantified statement is correct mathematical grammar.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Alright this is driving me crazy. I'm trying to figure out when we actually need to use 'such that' in math/logical expressions. There seems to be quite a bit of inconsistency but I wanted to check to be sure.



I've seen 3 ways of doing it...



  • My discrete mathematics professor IIRC always used a 'such that' after an existential qualifier but not after a universal qualifier... so he'd use ∃x ∈ N: x > 1, but then also ∀x ∈ N, x > 0 (I think he'd use a comma here)

  • These guys and a couple others I've seen online use no punctuation unless indicating parentheses: What does a period in between quantifiers mean?

  • But others still use 'such that' (:) before all qualifiers: Does order of qualifiers matter in FOL formula?

I believe my math professor did what he did because it translated cleanly to English. Since you'd say "There exists an x such that x > 3" but you could also say "For all x, x=x". But I'm trying to figure out what the 'such that' symbol actually means in math, because I don't think the way it works in English necessarily makes sense. Wolfram Alpha defines the 'such that' symbol as 'indicating a condition in the definition of a mathematical object', and this make sense but they introduce yet another convention of qualifiers after a such that since q∈Z ≡ ∀q∈Z. And of course this convention makes no sense when translated to English in the case when for example when we'd say "x > 3: ∃x ∈ N" which translates to "x is greater than three such that there exists an x in naturals".



So anyways my question is what are you actually supposed to do? It looks like there are multiple conventions so which is best and most commonly used?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




profPlum is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Alright this is driving me crazy. I'm trying to figure out when we actually need to use 'such that' in math/logical expressions. There seems to be quite a bit of inconsistency but I wanted to check to be sure.



I've seen 3 ways of doing it...



  • My discrete mathematics professor IIRC always used a 'such that' after an existential qualifier but not after a universal qualifier... so he'd use ∃x ∈ N: x > 1, but then also ∀x ∈ N, x > 0 (I think he'd use a comma here)

  • These guys and a couple others I've seen online use no punctuation unless indicating parentheses: What does a period in between quantifiers mean?

  • But others still use 'such that' (:) before all qualifiers: Does order of qualifiers matter in FOL formula?

I believe my math professor did what he did because it translated cleanly to English. Since you'd say "There exists an x such that x > 3" but you could also say "For all x, x=x". But I'm trying to figure out what the 'such that' symbol actually means in math, because I don't think the way it works in English necessarily makes sense. Wolfram Alpha defines the 'such that' symbol as 'indicating a condition in the definition of a mathematical object', and this make sense but they introduce yet another convention of qualifiers after a such that since q∈Z ≡ ∀q∈Z. And of course this convention makes no sense when translated to English in the case when for example when we'd say "x > 3: ∃x ∈ N" which translates to "x is greater than three such that there exists an x in naturals".



So anyways my question is what are you actually supposed to do? It looks like there are multiple conventions so which is best and most commonly used?







discrete-mathematics logic






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profPlum is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






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Check out our Code of Conduct.







  • 1




    It's similar to asking what "like" means in casual conversation. It's, like, simply a placeholder. It's, like, a verbal tic in the expression of an existential statement. I do it, many mathematicians do it.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Math isn't casual conversation though...
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Math between human beings, whether spoken or written, is carried out in human language, though. The point is: clarity and communication. Placeholders can help (and they can, like, hinder).
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Ok sure, so that would be "informal speach" which in English speaking cultures and many other cultures is grammatically incorrect. So why question is what is grammatically correct?
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago










  • To answer your grammar question, putting the words "such that" in the correct position of an existentially quantified statement is correct mathematical grammar.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago












  • 1




    It's similar to asking what "like" means in casual conversation. It's, like, simply a placeholder. It's, like, a verbal tic in the expression of an existential statement. I do it, many mathematicians do it.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Math isn't casual conversation though...
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    Math between human beings, whether spoken or written, is carried out in human language, though. The point is: clarity and communication. Placeholders can help (and they can, like, hinder).
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago











  • Ok sure, so that would be "informal speach" which in English speaking cultures and many other cultures is grammatically incorrect. So why question is what is grammatically correct?
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago










  • To answer your grammar question, putting the words "such that" in the correct position of an existentially quantified statement is correct mathematical grammar.
    – Lee Mosher
    4 hours ago







1




1




It's similar to asking what "like" means in casual conversation. It's, like, simply a placeholder. It's, like, a verbal tic in the expression of an existential statement. I do it, many mathematicians do it.
– Lee Mosher
4 hours ago





It's similar to asking what "like" means in casual conversation. It's, like, simply a placeholder. It's, like, a verbal tic in the expression of an existential statement. I do it, many mathematicians do it.
– Lee Mosher
4 hours ago













Math isn't casual conversation though...
– profPlum
4 hours ago




Math isn't casual conversation though...
– profPlum
4 hours ago




1




1




Math between human beings, whether spoken or written, is carried out in human language, though. The point is: clarity and communication. Placeholders can help (and they can, like, hinder).
– Lee Mosher
4 hours ago





Math between human beings, whether spoken or written, is carried out in human language, though. The point is: clarity and communication. Placeholders can help (and they can, like, hinder).
– Lee Mosher
4 hours ago













Ok sure, so that would be "informal speach" which in English speaking cultures and many other cultures is grammatically incorrect. So why question is what is grammatically correct?
– profPlum
4 hours ago




Ok sure, so that would be "informal speach" which in English speaking cultures and many other cultures is grammatically incorrect. So why question is what is grammatically correct?
– profPlum
4 hours ago












To answer your grammar question, putting the words "such that" in the correct position of an existentially quantified statement is correct mathematical grammar.
– Lee Mosher
4 hours ago




To answer your grammar question, putting the words "such that" in the correct position of an existentially quantified statement is correct mathematical grammar.
– Lee Mosher
4 hours ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










And in Enderton's Elements of Set Theory, he presents the axioms of ZFC in first-order logic as follows:enter image description here



There's neither ':' nor ','. Also, if you look at how first-order formulas are defined, you'll see no mention of ':' or ','.



So I don't think there's a standard think or rule to follow about these kind of things when you're doing mathematics in general. See what others use in general, and use it similarly, in a way that would be clearly understood.



Edit: This kind of questions may be relevant when you're doing things related to mathematical logic or computer science.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago










  • Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
    – profPlum
    4 hours ago










  • You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
    – Scientifica
    3 hours ago

















up vote
2
down vote













Some people even write things like $$exists z text s.t. forall y, ynotin z$$
Personally I think this is a horrible practice. One can think what one wants about how it wastes space, but more importantly it reinforces the dangerous misconception that logical symbols are just shorthand for words in English sentences. They are not; they make up a separate language with its own syntax and semantics, and the way we usually pronounce it with English words can misrepresent that semantics. (Consider for example how many beginning students, and sometimes textbook authors, who get themselves into contortions trying to understand the truth table of $Rightarrow$ as if it ought to be forced by the English words "if" and "then").



The "just shorthand for English words" mistake is also what makes people sometimes put quantifiers last, which leads to horrors such as
$$ exists z text s.t. ynotin z,; forall y $$
where we have completely lost the information about whether $z$ is allowed to depend on $y$ or not -- is it
$$ exists z text s.t. (ynotin z,; forall y) qquadtext or qquad
(exists z text s.t. ynotin z),; forall y;? $$

Succinct clarity about these matters is a big part of why we use symbolic quantifiers at all in the first place!



So always put quantifiers before the formula they range over.
And eschew punctuation that pretends symbolic logic is a way to write down English.






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  • I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
    – Henning Makholm
    1 hour ago











  • Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
    – Dan Christensen
    1 hour ago










  • @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
    – Rob Arthan
    22 mins ago

















up vote
1
down vote













There are no universally accepted standards in this case. You really must get used to slight variations in notation from one author to the next.



To add to the confusion, I often write $forall x: [x in N implies P(x)]$ and $exists x: [x in N land P(x)]$. It uses more symbols but it is often easier to work with than other notations. Tricky proofs in logic for the beginner, can often be made much simpler using this notation.




Warning: Avoid using $exists x: [ xin N implies P(x)]$. Very weird things can happen. Using ordinary set theory here, this statement will be true for any set $N$ and for even the most nonsensical proposition $P(x).$






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    up vote
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    down vote













    In my experience, mathematical logicians never use the form with ":", but split into two camps as regards the use of a ".": many people don't use a "." after quantifiers and take the quantifiers to have high precedence, so that $forall xforall y(x > y implies x ge y + 1)$ requires the brackets to make $x ge y + 1$ fall in the scope of the universal quantifiers; others use a "." or a "$bullet$" and take it as indicating that the quantifiers have low precedence, so they would write $forall x.forall y.x > y implies x ge y + 1$ (with the scope of the quantifiers extending as far to the right as possible). The former usage is fairly standard in the traditional logic literature, while the latter is perhaps more common among computer scientists and is often adopted in the syntax for proof assistants like HOL (and saves a lot of brackets in my experience of using such systems).






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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      And in Enderton's Elements of Set Theory, he presents the axioms of ZFC in first-order logic as follows:enter image description here



      There's neither ':' nor ','. Also, if you look at how first-order formulas are defined, you'll see no mention of ':' or ','.



      So I don't think there's a standard think or rule to follow about these kind of things when you're doing mathematics in general. See what others use in general, and use it similarly, in a way that would be clearly understood.



      Edit: This kind of questions may be relevant when you're doing things related to mathematical logic or computer science.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
        – Scientifica
        3 hours ago














      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      And in Enderton's Elements of Set Theory, he presents the axioms of ZFC in first-order logic as follows:enter image description here



      There's neither ':' nor ','. Also, if you look at how first-order formulas are defined, you'll see no mention of ':' or ','.



      So I don't think there's a standard think or rule to follow about these kind of things when you're doing mathematics in general. See what others use in general, and use it similarly, in a way that would be clearly understood.



      Edit: This kind of questions may be relevant when you're doing things related to mathematical logic or computer science.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
        – Scientifica
        3 hours ago












      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted






      And in Enderton's Elements of Set Theory, he presents the axioms of ZFC in first-order logic as follows:enter image description here



      There's neither ':' nor ','. Also, if you look at how first-order formulas are defined, you'll see no mention of ':' or ','.



      So I don't think there's a standard think or rule to follow about these kind of things when you're doing mathematics in general. See what others use in general, and use it similarly, in a way that would be clearly understood.



      Edit: This kind of questions may be relevant when you're doing things related to mathematical logic or computer science.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      And in Enderton's Elements of Set Theory, he presents the axioms of ZFC in first-order logic as follows:enter image description here



      There's neither ':' nor ','. Also, if you look at how first-order formulas are defined, you'll see no mention of ':' or ','.



      So I don't think there's a standard think or rule to follow about these kind of things when you're doing mathematics in general. See what others use in general, and use it similarly, in a way that would be clearly understood.



      Edit: This kind of questions may be relevant when you're doing things related to mathematical logic or computer science.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 4 hours ago









      Scientifica

      5,27121331




      5,27121331











      • Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
        – Scientifica
        3 hours ago
















      • Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
        – profPlum
        4 hours ago










      • You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
        – Scientifica
        3 hours ago















      Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
      – profPlum
      4 hours ago




      Ok interesting, I'm starting to think this no punctuation notation is most common and "formal". Thanks for your answer
      – profPlum
      4 hours ago












      Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
      – profPlum
      4 hours ago




      Also yes it is, I ask mostly for personal note-keeping but also in case I need to include it in any research papers.
      – profPlum
      4 hours ago












      You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
      – Scientifica
      3 hours ago




      You're welcome :) Glad you found the answer useful. Oh don't worry about that. People here answer for the pleasure of mathematics ;)
      – Scientifica
      3 hours ago










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Some people even write things like $$exists z text s.t. forall y, ynotin z$$
      Personally I think this is a horrible practice. One can think what one wants about how it wastes space, but more importantly it reinforces the dangerous misconception that logical symbols are just shorthand for words in English sentences. They are not; they make up a separate language with its own syntax and semantics, and the way we usually pronounce it with English words can misrepresent that semantics. (Consider for example how many beginning students, and sometimes textbook authors, who get themselves into contortions trying to understand the truth table of $Rightarrow$ as if it ought to be forced by the English words "if" and "then").



      The "just shorthand for English words" mistake is also what makes people sometimes put quantifiers last, which leads to horrors such as
      $$ exists z text s.t. ynotin z,; forall y $$
      where we have completely lost the information about whether $z$ is allowed to depend on $y$ or not -- is it
      $$ exists z text s.t. (ynotin z,; forall y) qquadtext or qquad
      (exists z text s.t. ynotin z),; forall y;? $$

      Succinct clarity about these matters is a big part of why we use symbolic quantifiers at all in the first place!



      So always put quantifiers before the formula they range over.
      And eschew punctuation that pretends symbolic logic is a way to write down English.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
        – Henning Makholm
        1 hour ago











      • Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
        – Dan Christensen
        1 hour ago










      • @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
        – Rob Arthan
        22 mins ago














      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Some people even write things like $$exists z text s.t. forall y, ynotin z$$
      Personally I think this is a horrible practice. One can think what one wants about how it wastes space, but more importantly it reinforces the dangerous misconception that logical symbols are just shorthand for words in English sentences. They are not; they make up a separate language with its own syntax and semantics, and the way we usually pronounce it with English words can misrepresent that semantics. (Consider for example how many beginning students, and sometimes textbook authors, who get themselves into contortions trying to understand the truth table of $Rightarrow$ as if it ought to be forced by the English words "if" and "then").



      The "just shorthand for English words" mistake is also what makes people sometimes put quantifiers last, which leads to horrors such as
      $$ exists z text s.t. ynotin z,; forall y $$
      where we have completely lost the information about whether $z$ is allowed to depend on $y$ or not -- is it
      $$ exists z text s.t. (ynotin z,; forall y) qquadtext or qquad
      (exists z text s.t. ynotin z),; forall y;? $$

      Succinct clarity about these matters is a big part of why we use symbolic quantifiers at all in the first place!



      So always put quantifiers before the formula they range over.
      And eschew punctuation that pretends symbolic logic is a way to write down English.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
        – Henning Makholm
        1 hour ago











      • Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
        – Dan Christensen
        1 hour ago










      • @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
        – Rob Arthan
        22 mins ago












      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      Some people even write things like $$exists z text s.t. forall y, ynotin z$$
      Personally I think this is a horrible practice. One can think what one wants about how it wastes space, but more importantly it reinforces the dangerous misconception that logical symbols are just shorthand for words in English sentences. They are not; they make up a separate language with its own syntax and semantics, and the way we usually pronounce it with English words can misrepresent that semantics. (Consider for example how many beginning students, and sometimes textbook authors, who get themselves into contortions trying to understand the truth table of $Rightarrow$ as if it ought to be forced by the English words "if" and "then").



      The "just shorthand for English words" mistake is also what makes people sometimes put quantifiers last, which leads to horrors such as
      $$ exists z text s.t. ynotin z,; forall y $$
      where we have completely lost the information about whether $z$ is allowed to depend on $y$ or not -- is it
      $$ exists z text s.t. (ynotin z,; forall y) qquadtext or qquad
      (exists z text s.t. ynotin z),; forall y;? $$

      Succinct clarity about these matters is a big part of why we use symbolic quantifiers at all in the first place!



      So always put quantifiers before the formula they range over.
      And eschew punctuation that pretends symbolic logic is a way to write down English.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Some people even write things like $$exists z text s.t. forall y, ynotin z$$
      Personally I think this is a horrible practice. One can think what one wants about how it wastes space, but more importantly it reinforces the dangerous misconception that logical symbols are just shorthand for words in English sentences. They are not; they make up a separate language with its own syntax and semantics, and the way we usually pronounce it with English words can misrepresent that semantics. (Consider for example how many beginning students, and sometimes textbook authors, who get themselves into contortions trying to understand the truth table of $Rightarrow$ as if it ought to be forced by the English words "if" and "then").



      The "just shorthand for English words" mistake is also what makes people sometimes put quantifiers last, which leads to horrors such as
      $$ exists z text s.t. ynotin z,; forall y $$
      where we have completely lost the information about whether $z$ is allowed to depend on $y$ or not -- is it
      $$ exists z text s.t. (ynotin z,; forall y) qquadtext or qquad
      (exists z text s.t. ynotin z),; forall y;? $$

      Succinct clarity about these matters is a big part of why we use symbolic quantifiers at all in the first place!



      So always put quantifiers before the formula they range over.
      And eschew punctuation that pretends symbolic logic is a way to write down English.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 1 hour ago









      Henning Makholm

      232k16297529




      232k16297529











      • I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
        – Henning Makholm
        1 hour ago











      • Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
        – Dan Christensen
        1 hour ago










      • @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
        – Rob Arthan
        22 mins ago
















      • I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
        – Henning Makholm
        1 hour ago











      • Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
        – Dan Christensen
        1 hour ago










      • @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
        – Rob Arthan
        22 mins ago















      I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
      – Henning Makholm
      1 hour ago





      I don't think a colon necessarily means "such that", though (written English doesn't use a colon for that function at all), but a comma after $forall y$ instead of a dot or colon, that drives me up a wall.
      – Henning Makholm
      1 hour ago













      Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
      – Dan Christensen
      1 hour ago




      Re: "Contortions trying to understand the truth table of ⇒ as if it ought to be forced by the English words 'if' and 'then.'" It seems to me that, if we are dealing with logical propositions that are unambiguously either true or false, then material implication quite adequately models the if-then constructs of natural language.
      – Dan Christensen
      1 hour ago












      @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
      – Rob Arthan
      22 mins ago




      @DanChristensen: the problem Henning is pointing out already exists if you write the quantifiers in natural language: "there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$ for any natural number $m$" is ambiguous whereas "there exists a natural number $n$ such that for any natural number $m$ $n > m$" and "for any natural number $m$ there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n > m$" are not (the former being false and the latter being true).
      – Rob Arthan
      22 mins ago










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      There are no universally accepted standards in this case. You really must get used to slight variations in notation from one author to the next.



      To add to the confusion, I often write $forall x: [x in N implies P(x)]$ and $exists x: [x in N land P(x)]$. It uses more symbols but it is often easier to work with than other notations. Tricky proofs in logic for the beginner, can often be made much simpler using this notation.




      Warning: Avoid using $exists x: [ xin N implies P(x)]$. Very weird things can happen. Using ordinary set theory here, this statement will be true for any set $N$ and for even the most nonsensical proposition $P(x).$






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        There are no universally accepted standards in this case. You really must get used to slight variations in notation from one author to the next.



        To add to the confusion, I often write $forall x: [x in N implies P(x)]$ and $exists x: [x in N land P(x)]$. It uses more symbols but it is often easier to work with than other notations. Tricky proofs in logic for the beginner, can often be made much simpler using this notation.




        Warning: Avoid using $exists x: [ xin N implies P(x)]$. Very weird things can happen. Using ordinary set theory here, this statement will be true for any set $N$ and for even the most nonsensical proposition $P(x).$






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          There are no universally accepted standards in this case. You really must get used to slight variations in notation from one author to the next.



          To add to the confusion, I often write $forall x: [x in N implies P(x)]$ and $exists x: [x in N land P(x)]$. It uses more symbols but it is often easier to work with than other notations. Tricky proofs in logic for the beginner, can often be made much simpler using this notation.




          Warning: Avoid using $exists x: [ xin N implies P(x)]$. Very weird things can happen. Using ordinary set theory here, this statement will be true for any set $N$ and for even the most nonsensical proposition $P(x).$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          There are no universally accepted standards in this case. You really must get used to slight variations in notation from one author to the next.



          To add to the confusion, I often write $forall x: [x in N implies P(x)]$ and $exists x: [x in N land P(x)]$. It uses more symbols but it is often easier to work with than other notations. Tricky proofs in logic for the beginner, can often be made much simpler using this notation.




          Warning: Avoid using $exists x: [ xin N implies P(x)]$. Very weird things can happen. Using ordinary set theory here, this statement will be true for any set $N$ and for even the most nonsensical proposition $P(x).$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 1 hour ago

























          answered 2 hours ago









          Dan Christensen

          8,17511732




          8,17511732




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              In my experience, mathematical logicians never use the form with ":", but split into two camps as regards the use of a ".": many people don't use a "." after quantifiers and take the quantifiers to have high precedence, so that $forall xforall y(x > y implies x ge y + 1)$ requires the brackets to make $x ge y + 1$ fall in the scope of the universal quantifiers; others use a "." or a "$bullet$" and take it as indicating that the quantifiers have low precedence, so they would write $forall x.forall y.x > y implies x ge y + 1$ (with the scope of the quantifiers extending as far to the right as possible). The former usage is fairly standard in the traditional logic literature, while the latter is perhaps more common among computer scientists and is often adopted in the syntax for proof assistants like HOL (and saves a lot of brackets in my experience of using such systems).






              share|cite
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                In my experience, mathematical logicians never use the form with ":", but split into two camps as regards the use of a ".": many people don't use a "." after quantifiers and take the quantifiers to have high precedence, so that $forall xforall y(x > y implies x ge y + 1)$ requires the brackets to make $x ge y + 1$ fall in the scope of the universal quantifiers; others use a "." or a "$bullet$" and take it as indicating that the quantifiers have low precedence, so they would write $forall x.forall y.x > y implies x ge y + 1$ (with the scope of the quantifiers extending as far to the right as possible). The former usage is fairly standard in the traditional logic literature, while the latter is perhaps more common among computer scientists and is often adopted in the syntax for proof assistants like HOL (and saves a lot of brackets in my experience of using such systems).






                share|cite






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  In my experience, mathematical logicians never use the form with ":", but split into two camps as regards the use of a ".": many people don't use a "." after quantifiers and take the quantifiers to have high precedence, so that $forall xforall y(x > y implies x ge y + 1)$ requires the brackets to make $x ge y + 1$ fall in the scope of the universal quantifiers; others use a "." or a "$bullet$" and take it as indicating that the quantifiers have low precedence, so they would write $forall x.forall y.x > y implies x ge y + 1$ (with the scope of the quantifiers extending as far to the right as possible). The former usage is fairly standard in the traditional logic literature, while the latter is perhaps more common among computer scientists and is often adopted in the syntax for proof assistants like HOL (and saves a lot of brackets in my experience of using such systems).






                  share|cite












                  In my experience, mathematical logicians never use the form with ":", but split into two camps as regards the use of a ".": many people don't use a "." after quantifiers and take the quantifiers to have high precedence, so that $forall xforall y(x > y implies x ge y + 1)$ requires the brackets to make $x ge y + 1$ fall in the scope of the universal quantifiers; others use a "." or a "$bullet$" and take it as indicating that the quantifiers have low precedence, so they would write $forall x.forall y.x > y implies x ge y + 1$ (with the scope of the quantifiers extending as far to the right as possible). The former usage is fairly standard in the traditional logic literature, while the latter is perhaps more common among computer scientists and is often adopted in the syntax for proof assistants like HOL (and saves a lot of brackets in my experience of using such systems).







                  share|cite












                  share|cite



                  share|cite










                  answered 3 mins ago









                  Rob Arthan

                  27.8k42865




                  27.8k42865




















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